Indigo Call letters for Freshers
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@dj flyboy
my friend, i have chked all the pages from april beginning ad haven't got any clarity on this although questions were asked, nobody answered them...i really request u to help out if its not too much of an effort...thank u
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@companion-
Please stop expecting everythin to be spoon fed to you.dont you think even you need to put in some efforts on your part to go and find out the answers to the questions,afterall ITS NOT TOO MUCH OF AN EFFORT!
Please stop expecting everythin to be spoon fed to you.dont you think even you need to put in some efforts on your part to go and find out the answers to the questions,afterall ITS NOT TOO MUCH OF AN EFFORT!
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@companion
my friend, i have chked all the pages from april beginning ad haven't got any clarity on this although questions were asked, nobody answered them...i really request u to help out if its not too much of an effort...thank u
kidding me?? i put 62 questions that i could remember here for everybody, is that effort not good enough for you?Sonsal and Adiyaslg went a step further to compile a question bank and put them on the forum. A lot of other ppl posted some interesting questions and their explaination.
Get off your lazy ass and find the answers yourself..kab tak kunji mein ghusa rahega..stop crying like a baby asking for a pacifier. Plane kya Papa ake udaenge??
Time to grow up kid.
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I'm in need of questions , kindly send at
[email protected]. thanks in advancu
[email protected]. thanks in advancu
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Met
Find height of tropopause from charts
Lapse rate questions
A/C flying south in southern hemi with stbd drift, which pressure is it flying into?
What is pressure alt?
when are pressure alt n density alt same?
Human Performance
Stress
Rate of alcohol consumption in body
Middle and inner ear related questions
Eye questions including fovea and rods
Nav
Diagrams of AH and you have to identify the one with the given condition
Altimeter numerical
flying from A to B, speed 0.84M. Distance 300nm, you have to increase your ETA by 2min, when will you decrease your speed? Previous ETA was given
Speed/Time problems
Gyro
Local time numerical
Tech
AOA questions
First few questions were of Air Regulation:
. Height and radius of VFR in congested Areas
. Fl to be flown in case of unlawful interference
. Fl to be flown, True Heading was given along with variation and deviation, but what flight, VFR or IFR wasn't given.
. Steady green light when a/c is on ground
. Series of red lights when a/c is in flight
. Two questions were there on the radio failure in IFR.
Meteorology
. Conditions in front of Stationary Front
. Chart was given with Isobars and fronts along with TAF clearly showing features of cold front, had identify the station
Human Performance
. Two questions on stress a
. What behavior is not good in team work
. Alcohol is filtered by which organ
Navigation
. What is the Chart length between 180E and 180W on same lat .
. Chart length was given on 59 lat, what is the chart length on some other lat
. Three Alternates were given with the course and the wind component, which alternate is close in terms of time
. A to B distance was given and wind component, what is the total time between A to B and then back to A.
. What is the GS and Heading, Course and Wind component were given
. QNH of ground is 1023 and elevation is 1500, how much you have to climb for FL 750
. In Mercator chart RL is a straight or curved line ?
. What is the Drift on **lat?
. What is the distance when an A/C descends 15000ft at the rate of 1500ft/min
. Radio Altimeter turns Analog to Circular at - a. below 1000ft, b. at or below 1000ft, c. at DH.
. One Altimeter is calibrated for Inst./Pos. error and other 1 is not, what happens is IAS changes
. Power of NDB is 100KW what is the range?
Technical
. Increase in altitude but Angle of Attack, mass and IAS remains same, what happens to the Angle of Climb
. With Increase in altitude what happens to the TAS and Drag
time &rel velocities
hysterisis error
combination of what all site errors adf has
topple of DGI at pole
topple/wander of DGI at somewhere else on earth
where does the wing mounted compass send its signals..amplifier/dgi etc
1 question on taf with a miniature map asking you to identify the airport it applies to
CDMVT 2-3 q
bearing 2-3 q.. NDB bearing & qdm etc given
what does attitude indicator indicate after straight level flight 180 deg turn...
load factor in a turn
stall speed
stall angle
VMU
speed ...direction ....new latitude of place
Lambert's departure
cp pnr
Eustachian tube
stress
REM sleep
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q1. When an altimeter is used for SSR it is always referenced to:
A) 1013.25 hPa
B) The pressure setting in use
C) QFE
D) QNH
Q2. If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and another altimeter which is not, and all other factors being equal:
A) there will be no difference between them if air the data computer is functioning normally.
B) At high speed the non compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude.
C) at high speed, the non compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude.
D) ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR.
Q3. VLO is defined as:
A) Minimum possible speed that the aircraft could lift off the ground
B) The maximum speed for landing gear operation
C) The long range cruise speed
D) Actual speed that the aircraft lifts off the ground
Q4. The rate of climb:
A) Is the downhill component of the true airspeed
B) Is angle of climb times true airspeed
C) Is the horizontal component of the true airspeed
D) Is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100
Q5.. For a single engine class B aeroplane, V2 may not be less than:
A) not applicable
B) 1.15Vs
C) 1.2Vs
D) 1.5Vs
Q6. Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
A) Is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed)
B) Is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off
C) Is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface
D) Is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off
Q7. The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on:
A) the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane
B) the radius of the turn and the bank angle
C) the bank angle only
D) the true airspeed and the bank angle
Q8. Given the following:
True Course: 315°
Wind velocity: 230/40
TAS: 420 knots
What is the wind correction angle and the groundspeed? (WCA / GS)
A) -6° / 415
B) +6° / 425
C) +6° / 415
D) -6° / 425
Q9. How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75?
Given:
Departure aerodrome elevation = 1500 ft
QNH = 1023 hPa
Temperature = ISA
1 hPa = 30 ft
A) 7800 ft
B) 6300 ft
C) 6600 ft
D) 6000 ft
Q10. The measured course 042° T
The variation in the area is 6° W and the wind is calm
The deviation is 4° W
In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a compass heading of:
A) 044°
B) 058°
C) 040°
D) 052°
Q11. Linear acceleration can give a false impression of a:
A) climb.
B) turn.
C) descent.
D) spin.
Q12. Which of the following statements, if any, are correct?
Euphoria is a possible result of hypoxia
Euphoria can lead to degraded decisions in flight
A) Neither.
B) 1 & 2.
C) 1 only.
D) 2 only.
Q13. Clear ice is most often experienced, when the outside temperature is:
A) 0° to minus 20° C.
B) Minus 5° to minus 10° .
C) 0° to minus 5° C.
D) Minus 5° to plus 5°
Q14. FL 80, an OAT +06° C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL 130, if you consider the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere?
A) -6° C
B) 0° C
C) +2° C
D) -4° C
Q15. FL 160, an OAT -22° C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL 90, if you consider the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere?
A) -4° C
B) +4° C
C) 0° C
D) -8° C
Q16. An approximate equation for calculation conversion angle is:
A) CA=dlong x sin Lat. x sin Long.
B) CA=0,5 x dlat x sin Lat.
C) CA=(dlong-dlat) x 0,5.
D) CA=0,5 x dlong x sin lat.
Q17. Using an NDB it is possible to experience which of the following errors or limitations?
A) Night effect, station interference and latitude error.
B) Coastal refraction, timing error and lack of a failure warning system.
C) Coastal refraction, timing error and night effect.
D) Night effect, station interference and lack of a failure warning system.
Q18. On an EHSI display, wind velocity can be displayed in which of the following modes?
A) Map, Plan, Full ILS and Full VOR.
B) Expanded ILS, Expanded VOR, Plan and Full ILS.
C) Plan, Full ILS, Expanded VOR and Full VOR.
D) Map, Expanded ILS, Full ILS and Full VOR.
Q19. Radio altitude is shown on the EADI and changes from a digital display to a circular scale:
A) below 1000 ft AGL.
B) at 1000 ft and below AGL.
C) at 2500 ft.
D) at DH.
Q20. If the needle and the ball of a Turn & Slip indicator both show left, what does it indicate:
A) turn to left & too much bank.
B) turn to right & too little bank.
C) turn to left & too little bank.
D) turn to right & too much bank.
Q21. Following 180° stabilized turn with a constant attitude and bank, the artificial horizon indicates:
A) too high pitch up and too high banking.
B) attitude and banking correct.
C) too high pitch-up and correct banking.
D) too high pitch-up and too low banking.
Q22. The speed VLO is defined as:
A) the speed at which the aircraft leaves the ground, not more than V2 and not less than VR
B) the maximum speed for extending or retracting the landing gear
C) the minimum speed in the landing configuration with one engine inoperative at which it is possible to maintain control of the aeroplane within defined limits whilst applying varying power
D) the stall speed in the landing configuration
Q23. Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:
A) decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb
B) improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY
C) improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX
D) decreases rate of climb and increase angle of climb
Q24. Given true track 352° , variation 11° W, deviation -5° and drift 10° S the required compass heading isSIMILAR)
A) 347°
B) 005°
C) 358°
D) 018°
Q24. What is the advantage of the remote indicating compass (slaved gyro compass) over the direct reading magnetic compass?
A) It senses the earths magnetic field rather than seeks it, so is more sensitive.
B) It is connected to a source of electrical power and so is more accurate.
C) It is lighter.
D) It is not affected by aircraft deviation.
Q25. From position A (04° N 030° W) an aircraft flies 600 NM due south, then 600 NM due east, the 600 NM due north, then 600 NM due west. What is the aircrafts final position in relation to A?
A) Overhead A.
B) Due east of A.
C) Due west of A.
D) Due south of A.
Q26. On the 27th of February, at 52° S and 040° E, the sunrise is at 0243 UTC. On the same day, at 52° S and 035° W, the sunrise is at: (SIMILAR)
A) 0243 UTC.
B) 0523 UTC.
C) 0743 UTC.
D) 2143 UTC.
Q27. The great circle track X - Y measured at x is 319° , and Y 325° Consider the following statementsSIMILAR)
A) Northern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 322° .
B) Northern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 313° .
C) Southern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 331° .
D) Southern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 322° .
Q28. On a typical computer generated SSR display the following data on a particular flight will be shown:
A) Squawk code, Flight level , True heading, Airplane callsign.
B) Destination, Flight level , Ground speed, Airplane callsign.
C) Squawk code, Magnetic heading , Ground speed, Airplane callsign.
D) Squawk code, Flight level , Ground speed, Airplane callsign.
Q29. A DME transponder does not respond to pulses received from radars other than DME because:
A) DME only responds to the strongest 100 interrogators.
B) DME transmits and receives on different frequencies.
C) it will only accept the unique twin DME pulses.
D) each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate.
Q30. An aircraft DME interrogator transmits pair of pulses for limited periods at switch on. The transmission pattern is: (similar)
A) 15000 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 27 pps.
B) 270 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 150 pps until lock on, then 25-30 pps.
C) 27000 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 30 pps.
D) 150 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 27 pps.
Q31. An aircraft heading 325° (M) has an ADF reading of 330° Relative. The heading to steer to intercept the 280° track inbound to the NDB at 50° is:
A) 340(M)
B) 330(M)
C) 310(M)
D) 320(M)
Q32. The maximum VHF range when flying at FL100 would beSIMILAR)
A) 120 nm
B) 100 nm
C) 85 nm
D) 12 nm
Q33. An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The aircraft is assumed to:
A) Land at the destination aerodrome.
B) Return to the aerodrome of departure.
C) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.
D) Land at the alternate aerodrome.
Q34. The procedure for an aircraft that suffers communications failure during an IFR flight in visual met conditions, should:
A) Proceed direct to its destination.
B) Maintain at last cleared level and speed for 20 minutes and then continue in accordance with the flight plan.
C) Carry out instrument approach at the nearest airfield.
D) Land at the nearest suitable airfield.
Q35. An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is assumed to:
A) Continue the flight to destination aerodrome in any case.
B) Leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace.
C) Squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodrome.
D) Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report its arrival.
Q36. Q.When acknowledging mode and code, pilot needs to:
a. Acknowledge code only
b. Acknowledge both code and mode
Q37. Q. What does series of green flashes indicate when on ground?
Q38. Q.Lift and drag depend on
a. Pressure distribution of wing aerofoil section
b. cambered airfoil
Q39. While turning the aircraft the pilot moves his/her head. What effect might the pilot be exposed to.
a) Coriolis Force
Q40. Decompression is caused by:
c) Nitrogen coming out of solution
Q41. The Retina
b) Receives light, through electrical reactions, converts it into electrical signals.
Q42. Hyperventilation is likely to occur as a result of:
B) the body attempting to compensate for a drop in partial oxygen pressure.
Q43. Generally a healthy person can compensate for the lack of oxygen with altitude upto:
10,000-12,000 feet.
Q44. Which gas diffuses from the blood to the lungs during external respiration?
Carbon Dioxide
Q45. Which illusion does linear acceleration cause?
Climbing
46. 100% Oxygen without direct pressure onto the face can be used up to:
40,000 feet
Q47. When being affected by Flicker Effect, the pilot should
Turn off the strobe lights
Q49. With pulse rate of 72 beats a minute and a stroke volume of 70ml. what is the cardiac output.
5 litres a minute
Q50. A person suffering from Glaucoma will have
Increased pressure of the eye
Q51. Decompression sickness symptoms can occur
Following loss of cabin pressure at altitudes higher than 18,000 feet
Q52. The effect of carbon monoxide: Increases with altitude
Q53. Clear Ice forms at temp: Near Freezing
Q54. A passenger complains of an inflated stomach at 8,000 feet. What action would you advised the passenger to take:
1. Unbuckle the seat belt and rub the stomach.
2. Avoid eating foods with fermentation qualities and or carbonated drinks.
3. Stand up and expel gases from the intestine.
4. Drink large amounts of water.
1,2,3 is correct 4 is false.
Q55. The metabolism of alcohol is affected by time
Q56.Hyperventilation can after a long period of time lead to unconsciousness due to.
low partial pressure of oxygen to the brain
Q57. The time of useful consciousness (TUC) following loss of cabin pressurization at 35,000 feet is. 30-60sec
Q58Under normal conditions which gas diffuses from the blood to the alveoli.
Carbon dioxide
Q59. Should a pilot fly with a bad cold he/she could suffer from: Sinus Pain
Q60. Above what height night vision can start to reduce?
5,000 feet
Q61. You suffer pain in an ear on a descent should you:
Level off and, if necessary climb to the level where it first occurred.
Q62. Q. An aircraft is flying over sea.FL 100.True altitude 10000ft.local QNH 1003. What can you say about the airmass over which the aircraft is flying:
a. It is warmer than ISA
b. It is colder than ISA
c. Its average temperature is same as that of ISA
d.The information is not sufficient
Q63. Q.What kind of precipitation is from clouds found in middle latitudes:
a. Drizzle
b.Hail
c. Heavy rain with large droplets
d. Medium rain with large droplets
Q64. Q.What does series of red flashes from ATC mean for aircraft in flight?
airport unsafe to land
Q65. Q.When excessive carbon dioxide has been removed , the blood
a. becomes alkaline attaching more oxygen to haemoglobin at lungs
b. becomes acidic
Q66. Eustachian tube is to:
a. equalise pressue between middle ear and external atmosphere
b. equalise pressure between sinuses and external atmosphere
Q67. Apparent wander at 45 degrees north
Q68. Rhumb line on direct Mercator:
a. Straight line
b. Convex to nearer pole
Q69. Arousal:
a. Body preparedness for a difficult task
b.High level of arousal means high vigilance
c. All of the above
Q70.Time taken for body to adjust to circadian rhythm if flight time exceeds 24 hrs:IS 1-1.5 HR TIME CHANGE THEN 1 DAY
a. 1-1.5 hrs per day
Q. True track 358 Var 4 deg east. Flight level chosen will be:
a. FL 75
b. FL 80
c. FL 65
d. FL 70
Q71. Initial phase of lock on Aircraft to DME, the Aircraft's transmits at what pulses.
Q. In fever below 35 deg C.
a) mental disorders, coma
b) shivering tends to cease, apathy
Q72. Hysteresis error of altimeter is due to.
Q. In an unaccelerated flight weight =
Q. At 18,000 partial oxygen pressure is 1/2 of what at Sea level. what statement justifies it.
a) Oxygen 1/2 of what it is at sea level
b) blood is 50% saturated with oxygen
Q73. What is random error, choose from the following example.
a) A shooter mistakenly shoots from the gun
b) A shooter shoots 1 in away from the target
c) Pilot put wrong info in the FMS
d)
Q74. Movement of air masses in the warm front.
Q. Heading indicator will stop rotating in the vertical plane at.
A) Equator
b) 45deg Lat
c) 30deg Lat
d) Poles
Q75. At medium lat Coriolis force experienced:
a) 7.5deg to right
b) 15deg to left
c) 7.5 deg to the left
d) 10.5 deg to the right
Q76. Range of NDB at 10 kw
a) 500nm
b) 100nm
c) 1000nm
d) 50nm
Few more
increase in flaps will cause v2 to increase, decrease or remain unchanged.
is max cruise thrust greater, lesser or equal to max continous thrust
how does change in altitude affect specific fuel consumption(sfc) - increase, decrease, remains constant.
what is the best air:fuel ratio by weight for jet engines
at which point or region of a jet engine is the pressure at its highest
For a given aerofoil, the AOA which results in a stall:
(a) remains constant regardless of bank, load or TAS
(b) varies directly with the degree of bank
(c) varies with the speed of airflow around aerofoil
The stall speed of an aircraft will increase with:
(a) decrease in the load factor
(b) increase in the pitch attitude for straight and level
(c) increase in the all up weight of the aircraft
The three axis of an aircraft intersect at the:
(a) centre of pressure
(b) centre of gravity
(c) midpoint of the datum line
When approaching the stall, the separation point
(a) always stays in the same position
(b) moves rearward
(c) moves towards the transition point
The primary function of the rudder, while entering a turn from straight-and-level flight, is to:
(a) overcome yaw caused by lowered aileron on higher wing
(b) overcome yaw caused by lowered aileron on lower wing
(c) overcome yaw caused by raised aileron on higher wing
An aircraft is in a state of equilibrium in:
(a) a steady rate 1 turn
(b) in a steady climb
(c) during take off
Adverse aileron yaw is reduced by the use of:
(a) vortex generators
(b) frise type ailerons
(c) boundary layer fences
Flying near high ground or mountains with winds in excess of 15km, you can expect strong turbulence and down draughts. What would you do to avoid damaging the aircraft and / or loosing control?
(a) maintain your heading and speed
(b) slow down to manoeuvring speed
(c) slow down to manoeuvring speed and fly upwind of ridge
On a cold, clear, humid night with a light wind, radiation fog will form. What might form when the wind picks up to 15kts?
(a) dew
(b) frost
(c) stratus
Which clouds are the least likely to produce airframe icing?
(a) middle cloud
(b) high cloud
(c) vertical development cloud
-------------------------------------------------------------------------- [/QUOTE]
Find height of tropopause from charts
Lapse rate questions
A/C flying south in southern hemi with stbd drift, which pressure is it flying into?
What is pressure alt?
when are pressure alt n density alt same?
Human Performance
Stress
Rate of alcohol consumption in body
Middle and inner ear related questions
Eye questions including fovea and rods
Nav
Diagrams of AH and you have to identify the one with the given condition
Altimeter numerical
flying from A to B, speed 0.84M. Distance 300nm, you have to increase your ETA by 2min, when will you decrease your speed? Previous ETA was given
Speed/Time problems
Gyro
Local time numerical
Tech
AOA questions
First few questions were of Air Regulation:
. Height and radius of VFR in congested Areas
. Fl to be flown in case of unlawful interference
. Fl to be flown, True Heading was given along with variation and deviation, but what flight, VFR or IFR wasn't given.
. Steady green light when a/c is on ground
. Series of red lights when a/c is in flight
. Two questions were there on the radio failure in IFR.
Meteorology
. Conditions in front of Stationary Front
. Chart was given with Isobars and fronts along with TAF clearly showing features of cold front, had identify the station
Human Performance
. Two questions on stress a
. What behavior is not good in team work
. Alcohol is filtered by which organ
Navigation
. What is the Chart length between 180E and 180W on same lat .
. Chart length was given on 59 lat, what is the chart length on some other lat
. Three Alternates were given with the course and the wind component, which alternate is close in terms of time
. A to B distance was given and wind component, what is the total time between A to B and then back to A.
. What is the GS and Heading, Course and Wind component were given
. QNH of ground is 1023 and elevation is 1500, how much you have to climb for FL 750
. In Mercator chart RL is a straight or curved line ?
. What is the Drift on **lat?
. What is the distance when an A/C descends 15000ft at the rate of 1500ft/min
. Radio Altimeter turns Analog to Circular at - a. below 1000ft, b. at or below 1000ft, c. at DH.
. One Altimeter is calibrated for Inst./Pos. error and other 1 is not, what happens is IAS changes
. Power of NDB is 100KW what is the range?
Technical
. Increase in altitude but Angle of Attack, mass and IAS remains same, what happens to the Angle of Climb
. With Increase in altitude what happens to the TAS and Drag
time &rel velocities
hysterisis error
combination of what all site errors adf has
topple of DGI at pole
topple/wander of DGI at somewhere else on earth
where does the wing mounted compass send its signals..amplifier/dgi etc
1 question on taf with a miniature map asking you to identify the airport it applies to
CDMVT 2-3 q
bearing 2-3 q.. NDB bearing & qdm etc given
what does attitude indicator indicate after straight level flight 180 deg turn...
load factor in a turn
stall speed
stall angle
VMU
speed ...direction ....new latitude of place
Lambert's departure
cp pnr
Eustachian tube
stress
REM sleep
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q1. When an altimeter is used for SSR it is always referenced to:
A) 1013.25 hPa
B) The pressure setting in use
C) QFE
D) QNH
Q2. If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and another altimeter which is not, and all other factors being equal:
A) there will be no difference between them if air the data computer is functioning normally.
B) At high speed the non compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude.
C) at high speed, the non compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude.
D) ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR.
Q3. VLO is defined as:
A) Minimum possible speed that the aircraft could lift off the ground
B) The maximum speed for landing gear operation
C) The long range cruise speed
D) Actual speed that the aircraft lifts off the ground
Q4. The rate of climb:
A) Is the downhill component of the true airspeed
B) Is angle of climb times true airspeed
C) Is the horizontal component of the true airspeed
D) Is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100
Q5.. For a single engine class B aeroplane, V2 may not be less than:
A) not applicable
B) 1.15Vs
C) 1.2Vs
D) 1.5Vs
Q6. Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
A) Is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed)
B) Is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off
C) Is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface
D) Is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off
Q7. The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on:
A) the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane
B) the radius of the turn and the bank angle
C) the bank angle only
D) the true airspeed and the bank angle
Q8. Given the following:
True Course: 315°
Wind velocity: 230/40
TAS: 420 knots
What is the wind correction angle and the groundspeed? (WCA / GS)
A) -6° / 415
B) +6° / 425
C) +6° / 415
D) -6° / 425
Q9. How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75?
Given:
Departure aerodrome elevation = 1500 ft
QNH = 1023 hPa
Temperature = ISA
1 hPa = 30 ft
A) 7800 ft
B) 6300 ft
C) 6600 ft
D) 6000 ft
Q10. The measured course 042° T
The variation in the area is 6° W and the wind is calm
The deviation is 4° W
In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a compass heading of:
A) 044°
B) 058°
C) 040°
D) 052°
Q11. Linear acceleration can give a false impression of a:
A) climb.
B) turn.
C) descent.
D) spin.
Q12. Which of the following statements, if any, are correct?
Euphoria is a possible result of hypoxia
Euphoria can lead to degraded decisions in flight
A) Neither.
B) 1 & 2.
C) 1 only.
D) 2 only.
Q13. Clear ice is most often experienced, when the outside temperature is:
A) 0° to minus 20° C.
B) Minus 5° to minus 10° .
C) 0° to minus 5° C.
D) Minus 5° to plus 5°
Q14. FL 80, an OAT +06° C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL 130, if you consider the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere?
A) -6° C
B) 0° C
C) +2° C
D) -4° C
Q15. FL 160, an OAT -22° C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL 90, if you consider the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere?
A) -4° C
B) +4° C
C) 0° C
D) -8° C
Q16. An approximate equation for calculation conversion angle is:
A) CA=dlong x sin Lat. x sin Long.
B) CA=0,5 x dlat x sin Lat.
C) CA=(dlong-dlat) x 0,5.
D) CA=0,5 x dlong x sin lat.
Q17. Using an NDB it is possible to experience which of the following errors or limitations?
A) Night effect, station interference and latitude error.
B) Coastal refraction, timing error and lack of a failure warning system.
C) Coastal refraction, timing error and night effect.
D) Night effect, station interference and lack of a failure warning system.
Q18. On an EHSI display, wind velocity can be displayed in which of the following modes?
A) Map, Plan, Full ILS and Full VOR.
B) Expanded ILS, Expanded VOR, Plan and Full ILS.
C) Plan, Full ILS, Expanded VOR and Full VOR.
D) Map, Expanded ILS, Full ILS and Full VOR.
Q19. Radio altitude is shown on the EADI and changes from a digital display to a circular scale:
A) below 1000 ft AGL.
B) at 1000 ft and below AGL.
C) at 2500 ft.
D) at DH.
Q20. If the needle and the ball of a Turn & Slip indicator both show left, what does it indicate:
A) turn to left & too much bank.
B) turn to right & too little bank.
C) turn to left & too little bank.
D) turn to right & too much bank.
Q21. Following 180° stabilized turn with a constant attitude and bank, the artificial horizon indicates:
A) too high pitch up and too high banking.
B) attitude and banking correct.
C) too high pitch-up and correct banking.
D) too high pitch-up and too low banking.
Q22. The speed VLO is defined as:
A) the speed at which the aircraft leaves the ground, not more than V2 and not less than VR
B) the maximum speed for extending or retracting the landing gear
C) the minimum speed in the landing configuration with one engine inoperative at which it is possible to maintain control of the aeroplane within defined limits whilst applying varying power
D) the stall speed in the landing configuration
Q23. Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:
A) decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb
B) improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY
C) improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX
D) decreases rate of climb and increase angle of climb
Q24. Given true track 352° , variation 11° W, deviation -5° and drift 10° S the required compass heading isSIMILAR)
A) 347°
B) 005°
C) 358°
D) 018°
Q24. What is the advantage of the remote indicating compass (slaved gyro compass) over the direct reading magnetic compass?
A) It senses the earths magnetic field rather than seeks it, so is more sensitive.
B) It is connected to a source of electrical power and so is more accurate.
C) It is lighter.
D) It is not affected by aircraft deviation.
Q25. From position A (04° N 030° W) an aircraft flies 600 NM due south, then 600 NM due east, the 600 NM due north, then 600 NM due west. What is the aircrafts final position in relation to A?
A) Overhead A.
B) Due east of A.
C) Due west of A.
D) Due south of A.
Q26. On the 27th of February, at 52° S and 040° E, the sunrise is at 0243 UTC. On the same day, at 52° S and 035° W, the sunrise is at: (SIMILAR)
A) 0243 UTC.
B) 0523 UTC.
C) 0743 UTC.
D) 2143 UTC.
Q27. The great circle track X - Y measured at x is 319° , and Y 325° Consider the following statementsSIMILAR)
A) Northern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 322° .
B) Northern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 313° .
C) Southern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 331° .
D) Southern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 322° .
Q28. On a typical computer generated SSR display the following data on a particular flight will be shown:
A) Squawk code, Flight level , True heading, Airplane callsign.
B) Destination, Flight level , Ground speed, Airplane callsign.
C) Squawk code, Magnetic heading , Ground speed, Airplane callsign.
D) Squawk code, Flight level , Ground speed, Airplane callsign.
Q29. A DME transponder does not respond to pulses received from radars other than DME because:
A) DME only responds to the strongest 100 interrogators.
B) DME transmits and receives on different frequencies.
C) it will only accept the unique twin DME pulses.
D) each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate.
Q30. An aircraft DME interrogator transmits pair of pulses for limited periods at switch on. The transmission pattern is: (similar)
A) 15000 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 27 pps.
B) 270 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 150 pps until lock on, then 25-30 pps.
C) 27000 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 30 pps.
D) 150 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 27 pps.
Q31. An aircraft heading 325° (M) has an ADF reading of 330° Relative. The heading to steer to intercept the 280° track inbound to the NDB at 50° is:
A) 340(M)
B) 330(M)
C) 310(M)
D) 320(M)
Q32. The maximum VHF range when flying at FL100 would beSIMILAR)
A) 120 nm
B) 100 nm
C) 85 nm
D) 12 nm
Q33. An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The aircraft is assumed to:
A) Land at the destination aerodrome.
B) Return to the aerodrome of departure.
C) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.
D) Land at the alternate aerodrome.
Q34. The procedure for an aircraft that suffers communications failure during an IFR flight in visual met conditions, should:
A) Proceed direct to its destination.
B) Maintain at last cleared level and speed for 20 minutes and then continue in accordance with the flight plan.
C) Carry out instrument approach at the nearest airfield.
D) Land at the nearest suitable airfield.
Q35. An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is assumed to:
A) Continue the flight to destination aerodrome in any case.
B) Leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace.
C) Squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodrome.
D) Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report its arrival.
Q36. Q.When acknowledging mode and code, pilot needs to:
a. Acknowledge code only
b. Acknowledge both code and mode
Q37. Q. What does series of green flashes indicate when on ground?
Q38. Q.Lift and drag depend on
a. Pressure distribution of wing aerofoil section
b. cambered airfoil
Q39. While turning the aircraft the pilot moves his/her head. What effect might the pilot be exposed to.
a) Coriolis Force
Q40. Decompression is caused by:
c) Nitrogen coming out of solution
Q41. The Retina
b) Receives light, through electrical reactions, converts it into electrical signals.
Q42. Hyperventilation is likely to occur as a result of:
B) the body attempting to compensate for a drop in partial oxygen pressure.
Q43. Generally a healthy person can compensate for the lack of oxygen with altitude upto:
10,000-12,000 feet.
Q44. Which gas diffuses from the blood to the lungs during external respiration?
Carbon Dioxide
Q45. Which illusion does linear acceleration cause?
Climbing
46. 100% Oxygen without direct pressure onto the face can be used up to:
40,000 feet
Q47. When being affected by Flicker Effect, the pilot should
Turn off the strobe lights
Q49. With pulse rate of 72 beats a minute and a stroke volume of 70ml. what is the cardiac output.
5 litres a minute
Q50. A person suffering from Glaucoma will have
Increased pressure of the eye
Q51. Decompression sickness symptoms can occur
Following loss of cabin pressure at altitudes higher than 18,000 feet
Q52. The effect of carbon monoxide: Increases with altitude
Q53. Clear Ice forms at temp: Near Freezing
Q54. A passenger complains of an inflated stomach at 8,000 feet. What action would you advised the passenger to take:
1. Unbuckle the seat belt and rub the stomach.
2. Avoid eating foods with fermentation qualities and or carbonated drinks.
3. Stand up and expel gases from the intestine.
4. Drink large amounts of water.
1,2,3 is correct 4 is false.
Q55. The metabolism of alcohol is affected by time
Q56.Hyperventilation can after a long period of time lead to unconsciousness due to.
low partial pressure of oxygen to the brain
Q57. The time of useful consciousness (TUC) following loss of cabin pressurization at 35,000 feet is. 30-60sec
Q58Under normal conditions which gas diffuses from the blood to the alveoli.
Carbon dioxide
Q59. Should a pilot fly with a bad cold he/she could suffer from: Sinus Pain
Q60. Above what height night vision can start to reduce?
5,000 feet
Q61. You suffer pain in an ear on a descent should you:
Level off and, if necessary climb to the level where it first occurred.
Q62. Q. An aircraft is flying over sea.FL 100.True altitude 10000ft.local QNH 1003. What can you say about the airmass over which the aircraft is flying:
a. It is warmer than ISA
b. It is colder than ISA
c. Its average temperature is same as that of ISA
d.The information is not sufficient
Q63. Q.What kind of precipitation is from clouds found in middle latitudes:
a. Drizzle
b.Hail
c. Heavy rain with large droplets
d. Medium rain with large droplets
Q64. Q.What does series of red flashes from ATC mean for aircraft in flight?
airport unsafe to land
Q65. Q.When excessive carbon dioxide has been removed , the blood
a. becomes alkaline attaching more oxygen to haemoglobin at lungs
b. becomes acidic
Q66. Eustachian tube is to:
a. equalise pressue between middle ear and external atmosphere
b. equalise pressure between sinuses and external atmosphere
Q67. Apparent wander at 45 degrees north
Q68. Rhumb line on direct Mercator:
a. Straight line
b. Convex to nearer pole
Q69. Arousal:
a. Body preparedness for a difficult task
b.High level of arousal means high vigilance
c. All of the above
Q70.Time taken for body to adjust to circadian rhythm if flight time exceeds 24 hrs:IS 1-1.5 HR TIME CHANGE THEN 1 DAY
a. 1-1.5 hrs per day
Q. True track 358 Var 4 deg east. Flight level chosen will be:
a. FL 75
b. FL 80
c. FL 65
d. FL 70
Q71. Initial phase of lock on Aircraft to DME, the Aircraft's transmits at what pulses.
Q. In fever below 35 deg C.
a) mental disorders, coma
b) shivering tends to cease, apathy
Q72. Hysteresis error of altimeter is due to.
Q. In an unaccelerated flight weight =
Q. At 18,000 partial oxygen pressure is 1/2 of what at Sea level. what statement justifies it.
a) Oxygen 1/2 of what it is at sea level
b) blood is 50% saturated with oxygen
Q73. What is random error, choose from the following example.
a) A shooter mistakenly shoots from the gun
b) A shooter shoots 1 in away from the target
c) Pilot put wrong info in the FMS
d)
Q74. Movement of air masses in the warm front.
Q. Heading indicator will stop rotating in the vertical plane at.
A) Equator
b) 45deg Lat
c) 30deg Lat
d) Poles
Q75. At medium lat Coriolis force experienced:
a) 7.5deg to right
b) 15deg to left
c) 7.5 deg to the left
d) 10.5 deg to the right
Q76. Range of NDB at 10 kw
a) 500nm
b) 100nm
c) 1000nm
d) 50nm
Few more
increase in flaps will cause v2 to increase, decrease or remain unchanged.
is max cruise thrust greater, lesser or equal to max continous thrust
how does change in altitude affect specific fuel consumption(sfc) - increase, decrease, remains constant.
what is the best air:fuel ratio by weight for jet engines
at which point or region of a jet engine is the pressure at its highest
For a given aerofoil, the AOA which results in a stall:
(a) remains constant regardless of bank, load or TAS
(b) varies directly with the degree of bank
(c) varies with the speed of airflow around aerofoil
The stall speed of an aircraft will increase with:
(a) decrease in the load factor
(b) increase in the pitch attitude for straight and level
(c) increase in the all up weight of the aircraft
The three axis of an aircraft intersect at the:
(a) centre of pressure
(b) centre of gravity
(c) midpoint of the datum line
When approaching the stall, the separation point
(a) always stays in the same position
(b) moves rearward
(c) moves towards the transition point
The primary function of the rudder, while entering a turn from straight-and-level flight, is to:
(a) overcome yaw caused by lowered aileron on higher wing
(b) overcome yaw caused by lowered aileron on lower wing
(c) overcome yaw caused by raised aileron on higher wing
An aircraft is in a state of equilibrium in:
(a) a steady rate 1 turn
(b) in a steady climb
(c) during take off
Adverse aileron yaw is reduced by the use of:
(a) vortex generators
(b) frise type ailerons
(c) boundary layer fences
Flying near high ground or mountains with winds in excess of 15km, you can expect strong turbulence and down draughts. What would you do to avoid damaging the aircraft and / or loosing control?
(a) maintain your heading and speed
(b) slow down to manoeuvring speed
(c) slow down to manoeuvring speed and fly upwind of ridge
On a cold, clear, humid night with a light wind, radiation fog will form. What might form when the wind picks up to 15kts?
(a) dew
(b) frost
(c) stratus
Which clouds are the least likely to produce airframe icing?
(a) middle cloud
(b) high cloud
(c) vertical development cloud
-------------------------------------------------------------------------- [/QUOTE]
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question bank
hi
i would appreciate if you could mail the q bank you say about..
My email is [email protected]
Thank you and good luck!
i would appreciate if you could mail the q bank you say about..
My email is [email protected]
Thank you and good luck!
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600 Ques
@vdaff
can u plz send me these 600 Ques
would really appreciate it.
My email id is [email protected]
can u plz send me these 600 Ques
would really appreciate it.
My email id is [email protected]
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@vdaff
hi, this is priyanka sharma , my email id is [email protected] ,it will be a great help for me..
hi, this is priyanka sharma , my email id is [email protected] ,it will be a great help for me..
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my email id is [email protected]
i really appreciate your effort....thanks
i really appreciate your effort....thanks
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my answers to the above questions are as follows, if anyone thinks any of them are wrong, please feel free to correct me
PS - sorry for not contributing any questions, the test was way too tough and the options were way too confusing for me to recollect anything from the time i walked out of the exam hall, trust me that's no excuse
1A 2C 3B 4D 5C 6D 7C 8A 9B 10D 11A 12B 13A 14D 15D 16D 17D 18A 19B 20A 21A 22B 23A ("decrease" word is missing infront of angle of climb) 24C 24A 25B 26C 27no idea, help! 28D 29C 30D 31B 32A 33C 34D 35D 36B 37continue to taxi until holding short for take off 38B 39spatial disorientation - option not present 49what is the formula to calculate this? 62A 63A 65A 66A 68B 69C 70FL80 71"intense sweating" - option not present 72A 73B 74warm air will override cold air 74D 75A 76C
anyone knows the answers to the extra questions posted? thanks
PS - sorry for not contributing any questions, the test was way too tough and the options were way too confusing for me to recollect anything from the time i walked out of the exam hall, trust me that's no excuse
1A 2C 3B 4D 5C 6D 7C 8A 9B 10D 11A 12B 13A 14D 15D 16D 17D 18A 19B 20A 21A 22B 23A ("decrease" word is missing infront of angle of climb) 24C 24A 25B 26C 27no idea, help! 28D 29C 30D 31B 32A 33C 34D 35D 36B 37continue to taxi until holding short for take off 38B 39spatial disorientation - option not present 49what is the formula to calculate this? 62A 63A 65A 66A 68B 69C 70FL80 71"intense sweating" - option not present 72A 73B 74warm air will override cold air 74D 75A 76C
anyone knows the answers to the extra questions posted? thanks
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@aroumika
1A 2C 3B 4D 5C 6D 7C 8A 9B 10D 11A 12B 13A 14D 15D 16D 17D 18A 19B 20A 21A 22B 23A ("decrease" word is missing infront of angle of climb) 24C 24A 25B 26C 27no idea, help! 28D 29C 30D 31B 32A 33C 34D 35D 36B 37continue to taxi until holding short for take off 38B 39spatial disorientation - option not present 49what is the formula to calculate this? 62A 63A 65A 66A 68B 69C 70FL80 71"intense sweating" - option not present 72A 73B 74warm air will override cold air 74D 75A 76C
can u please explain the answers of Q-9 ,Q-13,Q-18,Q-19,Q-21,Q-26,Q-29,Q-70
ANSWER OF Q-25 IS I THINK -D,27-D, Q-49 JST MULTIPLY BOTH AND CHANGE ML TO LITER,,
1A 2C 3B 4D 5C 6D 7C 8A 9B 10D 11A 12B 13A 14D 15D 16D 17D 18A 19B 20A 21A 22B 23A ("decrease" word is missing infront of angle of climb) 24C 24A 25B 26C 27no idea, help! 28D 29C 30D 31B 32A 33C 34D 35D 36B 37continue to taxi until holding short for take off 38B 39spatial disorientation - option not present 49what is the formula to calculate this? 62A 63A 65A 66A 68B 69C 70FL80 71"intense sweating" - option not present 72A 73B 74warm air will override cold air 74D 75A 76C
can u please explain the answers of Q-9 ,Q-13,Q-18,Q-19,Q-21,Q-26,Q-29,Q-70
ANSWER OF Q-25 IS I THINK -D,27-D, Q-49 JST MULTIPLY BOTH AND CHANGE ML TO LITER,,
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calculate the theoretical max range that a pilot would obtain from a VOR situated 900 ft amsl in a aircraft flying at18000ft??
i donno y i m getting a wrong answer
the answer is-202nm.
i donno y i m getting a wrong answer
the answer is-202nm.
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question bank
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@priyankaflyingbird
question9 - FL75 = 7500 feet minus airport elevation (1500 feet) = 6000 feet, QNH given is 1023, compare this to standard QNH (1013), 1023 minus 1013 = 10 pa, each pa of pressure equals 30 feet, so 10 pa gives 300 feet, add this to 6000 feet = 6300 feet
question 19 - the switch from digital to circular state happens exactly with 1000AGL is reached, as compared to option A which says below 1000, which could mean anywhere below 1000AGL (not specific enough)
question 26 - the sun first rises in the east and then towards the west, the sunrise at an easterly longitude of 40 degrees east is given, the sun will obviously rise 5 hours in a westerly longitude of 35 exactly 5 hours later, the difference in longitudes being 40 + 35 = 75 divided by 15 (which is the number of longitudes covered by the earth's rotation in one hour = 5 hours, hence 0243 + 5 hours = 0743
question 29 - each a/c interrogates by transmitting a unique set of pulses identified by the DME ground station which transponds back each a/c accordingly, but if the pulses were not unique, it would not be able to differentiate between all the aircrafts locked into it
question 70 - true track is 358, minus 4 for easterly variation to give a magnetic track of 354, all magnetic tracks between 180-359 fly at an altitude of even thousands of feet
questions 13, 18, 21 - purely theoretical questions that i read somewhere, i could be wrong though, hope i could help
question9 - FL75 = 7500 feet minus airport elevation (1500 feet) = 6000 feet, QNH given is 1023, compare this to standard QNH (1013), 1023 minus 1013 = 10 pa, each pa of pressure equals 30 feet, so 10 pa gives 300 feet, add this to 6000 feet = 6300 feet
question 19 - the switch from digital to circular state happens exactly with 1000AGL is reached, as compared to option A which says below 1000, which could mean anywhere below 1000AGL (not specific enough)
question 26 - the sun first rises in the east and then towards the west, the sunrise at an easterly longitude of 40 degrees east is given, the sun will obviously rise 5 hours in a westerly longitude of 35 exactly 5 hours later, the difference in longitudes being 40 + 35 = 75 divided by 15 (which is the number of longitudes covered by the earth's rotation in one hour = 5 hours, hence 0243 + 5 hours = 0743
question 29 - each a/c interrogates by transmitting a unique set of pulses identified by the DME ground station which transponds back each a/c accordingly, but if the pulses were not unique, it would not be able to differentiate between all the aircrafts locked into it
question 70 - true track is 358, minus 4 for easterly variation to give a magnetic track of 354, all magnetic tracks between 180-359 fly at an altitude of even thousands of feet
questions 13, 18, 21 - purely theoretical questions that i read somewhere, i could be wrong though, hope i could help