JAR - General Navigation Q&As
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JAR - General Navigation Q&As
Be warned, the degrees symbol has come out as the figure '1' in this format.... hope these help
061 - GENERAL NAVIGATION
JAR REVISION QUESTIONS
SECTION 1 - 061 01 - BASICS OF NAVIGATION
1 The angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the plane of the Equator is approximately:
a. 23.51
b. 25.31
c. 66.51
d. 901 1 min (1)
2 At what approximate date is the Earth nearest to the sun (perihelion)?
a. Beginning of July
b. End of December
c. Beginning of January
d. End of March 1 min (1)
3 The Earth is:
a. A sphere which has a larger polar circumference than equatorial circumference
b. A sphere whose centre is equidistant (the same distance) from the Poles and the Equator
c. Considered to be a perfect sphere as far as navigation is concerned
d. None of the above statements is correct 1 min (1)
4 An aircraft starts from (S04110' W178122) and flies north for 2950 nm along the meridian, then west for 382nm along the parallel of latitude. What is the aircraft's final position?
a. N45100' E172138'
b. N53120' W169122'
c. N45100' W169122'
d. N53120' E172138' 2 min (2)
5 The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different duration is due to the:
a. Earth's rotation
b. Relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic
c. Inclination of the ecliptic to the Equator
d. Gravitational effect of the sun and moon on the speed of rotation of the Earth 1 min (1)
6 On 27 Feb, at S52100' E040100', the sunrise is at 0230UTC. On the same day, at S52100' W035100', the sunrise is at:
a. 0230UTC
b. 0510UTC
c. 0730UTC
d. 2130UTC 1 min (1)
7 The UTC of the end of Evening Civil Twilight in position N51100' W008100' on 15 August is:
a. 1928UTC
b. 1944UTC
c. 2000UTC
d. 2032UTC 2 min (2)
8 Given: True track 3481; drift 171 left; variation 321W; deviation 41E
What is the compass heading?
a. 3591
b. 0071
c. 3371
d. 0331 1 min (1)
9 A flight is planned from A (N37100' E/W000100') to B (N46100' E/W000100'). The distance in kilometres from A to B is approximately:
a. 540
b. 794
c. 1000
d. 1771 1 min (1)
10 The rhumb line distance between points C (N60100' E002130') and D (N60100' W007130') is:
a. 300nm
b. 520nm
c. 150nm
d. 600nm 1 min (1)
11 An aircraft at latitude S06120' tracks 0001T for 1667km. On completion of the flight the latitude will be:
a. S21120'
b. N21125'
c. N08140'
d. N09140' 2 min (2)
12 An aircraft departs N60100' W030100' and, following rhumb line tracks throughout, flies South for 3600nm, East for 3600nm, North for 3600nm and West for 3600nm. The aircraft's final position was:
a. N60100' E/W000100'
b. N60100' W030100'
c. N60100' W090100'
d. N60100' W060100' 1 min (1)
13 Given: Variation 71W
Deviation 41E
If the aircraft is flying a Compass heading of 270, the True and Magnetic
Headings are:
a. 2741(T) 2671(M)
b. 2671(T) 2741(M)
c. 2771(T) 2811(M)
d. 2631(T) 2591(M) 1 min (1)
14 At what time of the year is the Earth at its furthest point from the sun (aphelion)?
a. Early July
b. Late December
c. Early January
d. Mid-June 1 min (1)
15 What is the circumference of the Earth?
a. 21,600km
b. 40,000nm
c. 10,800nm
d. 21,600nm 1 min (1)
16 Given: True track 1401; drift 81S; variation 91W; deviation 21E
What is the compass heading?
a. 1471(C)
b. 1551(C)
c. 1391(C)
d. 1251(C) 1 min (1)
17 Determine the distance between points A (N45100' E010100') and B (N45100' W005100') is:
a. 300nm
b. 636.4nm
c. 900nm
d. 212.1nm 1 min (1)
18 An aircraft departs from N02120' E04500' on a track of 1801T and flies 685km. On completion of the flight the latitude will be:
a. S11125'
b. S08130'
c. S03150'
d. S09105' 2 min (2)
19 A is at S45100' W010100'; B is at S45100' W030100'. The true course of an aircraft on its arrival at B, to the nearest degree, is:
a. 2631
b. 2701
c. 2771
d. 2841 2 min (2)
20 A Rhumb Line is:
a. The vertex of a conformal polyformic projection
b. A straight line on a Lambert's conformal chart
c. A line on the Earth which cuts all meridians at the same angle
d. The shortest distance between two points on the Earth's surface 1 min (1)
21 An aircraft departs from position 27100'N 170100'W and travels 3000km on a track of 1801(T), then 3000km on a track of 0901(T), then 3000km on a track of 0001(T) and, finally, 3000km on a track of 2701(T). The aircraft's final position is:
a. 27100'N 170100'W
b. 00100'N/S 170100'W
c. 27100'N 173118'W
d. 27100'N 143100'W 3 min (3)
22 If it is 1200 Standard Time on 10th July in Queensland, Australia, the Standard Time in Hawaii, USA is:
a. 1200ST 10 July
b. 1000ST 10 July
c. 1600ST 09 July
d. 0200ST 10 July 2 min (2)
23 Referring to the tables at Appendix 1, the UTC of sunrise in Vancouver, British Columbia, Canada (49100'N 123130'W) on 6 December is:
a. 2324UTC
b. 0724UTC
c. 1552UTC
d. 0738UTC
24 Aphelion occurs in:
a. January
b. March
c. July
d. November 1 min (1)
25 The months in which the difference between apparent noon and mean noon is greatest are:
a. February and November
b. January and July
c. March and September
d. June and December 1 min (1)
26 The change of longitude which is equivalent to a time difference of 5 hours 20 minutes and 20 seconds is:
a. 81130'
b. 78115'
c. 79110'
d. 80105' 2 min (2)
27 An aircraft starts at position 04110'S 178122'W and heads True North for 2950nm, then turns 901 left maintaining a rhumb line track for 314km. The aircraft's final position is:
a. 55100'N 174122'W
b. 45100'N 174122'W
c. 55100'N 177138'E
d. 45100'N 177138'E 2 min (2)
28 An aircraft at position 60100'N 005122'W flies 165km due East. The aircraft's new position is:
a. 60100'N 008120'E
b. 60100'N 002124'W
c. 60100'N 001108'E
d. 60100'N 001108'W 2 min (2)
JAR REVISION QUESTIONS
SECTION 1 - 061 01 - BASICS OF NAVIGATION
Answers:
1 a
2 c
3 c
4 a
5 c
6 c
7 d
8 d
9 c
10 a
11 c
12 c
13 b
14 a
15 d
16 c
17 b
18 c
19 c
20 c
21 c
22 c
23 c
24 c
25 a
26 d
27 d
28 b
061 - GENERAL NAVIGATION
JAR REVISION QUESTIONS
SECTION 1 - 061 01 - BASICS OF NAVIGATION
1 The angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the plane of the Equator is approximately:
a. 23.51
b. 25.31
c. 66.51
d. 901 1 min (1)
2 At what approximate date is the Earth nearest to the sun (perihelion)?
a. Beginning of July
b. End of December
c. Beginning of January
d. End of March 1 min (1)
3 The Earth is:
a. A sphere which has a larger polar circumference than equatorial circumference
b. A sphere whose centre is equidistant (the same distance) from the Poles and the Equator
c. Considered to be a perfect sphere as far as navigation is concerned
d. None of the above statements is correct 1 min (1)
4 An aircraft starts from (S04110' W178122) and flies north for 2950 nm along the meridian, then west for 382nm along the parallel of latitude. What is the aircraft's final position?
a. N45100' E172138'
b. N53120' W169122'
c. N45100' W169122'
d. N53120' E172138' 2 min (2)
5 The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different duration is due to the:
a. Earth's rotation
b. Relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic
c. Inclination of the ecliptic to the Equator
d. Gravitational effect of the sun and moon on the speed of rotation of the Earth 1 min (1)
6 On 27 Feb, at S52100' E040100', the sunrise is at 0230UTC. On the same day, at S52100' W035100', the sunrise is at:
a. 0230UTC
b. 0510UTC
c. 0730UTC
d. 2130UTC 1 min (1)
7 The UTC of the end of Evening Civil Twilight in position N51100' W008100' on 15 August is:
a. 1928UTC
b. 1944UTC
c. 2000UTC
d. 2032UTC 2 min (2)
8 Given: True track 3481; drift 171 left; variation 321W; deviation 41E
What is the compass heading?
a. 3591
b. 0071
c. 3371
d. 0331 1 min (1)
9 A flight is planned from A (N37100' E/W000100') to B (N46100' E/W000100'). The distance in kilometres from A to B is approximately:
a. 540
b. 794
c. 1000
d. 1771 1 min (1)
10 The rhumb line distance between points C (N60100' E002130') and D (N60100' W007130') is:
a. 300nm
b. 520nm
c. 150nm
d. 600nm 1 min (1)
11 An aircraft at latitude S06120' tracks 0001T for 1667km. On completion of the flight the latitude will be:
a. S21120'
b. N21125'
c. N08140'
d. N09140' 2 min (2)
12 An aircraft departs N60100' W030100' and, following rhumb line tracks throughout, flies South for 3600nm, East for 3600nm, North for 3600nm and West for 3600nm. The aircraft's final position was:
a. N60100' E/W000100'
b. N60100' W030100'
c. N60100' W090100'
d. N60100' W060100' 1 min (1)
13 Given: Variation 71W
Deviation 41E
If the aircraft is flying a Compass heading of 270, the True and Magnetic
Headings are:
a. 2741(T) 2671(M)
b. 2671(T) 2741(M)
c. 2771(T) 2811(M)
d. 2631(T) 2591(M) 1 min (1)
14 At what time of the year is the Earth at its furthest point from the sun (aphelion)?
a. Early July
b. Late December
c. Early January
d. Mid-June 1 min (1)
15 What is the circumference of the Earth?
a. 21,600km
b. 40,000nm
c. 10,800nm
d. 21,600nm 1 min (1)
16 Given: True track 1401; drift 81S; variation 91W; deviation 21E
What is the compass heading?
a. 1471(C)
b. 1551(C)
c. 1391(C)
d. 1251(C) 1 min (1)
17 Determine the distance between points A (N45100' E010100') and B (N45100' W005100') is:
a. 300nm
b. 636.4nm
c. 900nm
d. 212.1nm 1 min (1)
18 An aircraft departs from N02120' E04500' on a track of 1801T and flies 685km. On completion of the flight the latitude will be:
a. S11125'
b. S08130'
c. S03150'
d. S09105' 2 min (2)
19 A is at S45100' W010100'; B is at S45100' W030100'. The true course of an aircraft on its arrival at B, to the nearest degree, is:
a. 2631
b. 2701
c. 2771
d. 2841 2 min (2)
20 A Rhumb Line is:
a. The vertex of a conformal polyformic projection
b. A straight line on a Lambert's conformal chart
c. A line on the Earth which cuts all meridians at the same angle
d. The shortest distance between two points on the Earth's surface 1 min (1)
21 An aircraft departs from position 27100'N 170100'W and travels 3000km on a track of 1801(T), then 3000km on a track of 0901(T), then 3000km on a track of 0001(T) and, finally, 3000km on a track of 2701(T). The aircraft's final position is:
a. 27100'N 170100'W
b. 00100'N/S 170100'W
c. 27100'N 173118'W
d. 27100'N 143100'W 3 min (3)
22 If it is 1200 Standard Time on 10th July in Queensland, Australia, the Standard Time in Hawaii, USA is:
a. 1200ST 10 July
b. 1000ST 10 July
c. 1600ST 09 July
d. 0200ST 10 July 2 min (2)
23 Referring to the tables at Appendix 1, the UTC of sunrise in Vancouver, British Columbia, Canada (49100'N 123130'W) on 6 December is:
a. 2324UTC
b. 0724UTC
c. 1552UTC
d. 0738UTC
24 Aphelion occurs in:
a. January
b. March
c. July
d. November 1 min (1)
25 The months in which the difference between apparent noon and mean noon is greatest are:
a. February and November
b. January and July
c. March and September
d. June and December 1 min (1)
26 The change of longitude which is equivalent to a time difference of 5 hours 20 minutes and 20 seconds is:
a. 81130'
b. 78115'
c. 79110'
d. 80105' 2 min (2)
27 An aircraft starts at position 04110'S 178122'W and heads True North for 2950nm, then turns 901 left maintaining a rhumb line track for 314km. The aircraft's final position is:
a. 55100'N 174122'W
b. 45100'N 174122'W
c. 55100'N 177138'E
d. 45100'N 177138'E 2 min (2)
28 An aircraft at position 60100'N 005122'W flies 165km due East. The aircraft's new position is:
a. 60100'N 008120'E
b. 60100'N 002124'W
c. 60100'N 001108'E
d. 60100'N 001108'W 2 min (2)
JAR REVISION QUESTIONS
SECTION 1 - 061 01 - BASICS OF NAVIGATION
Answers:
1 a
2 c
3 c
4 a
5 c
6 c
7 d
8 d
9 c
10 a
11 c
12 c
13 b
14 a
15 d
16 c
17 b
18 c
19 c
20 c
21 c
22 c
23 c
24 c
25 a
26 d
27 d
28 b
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Posts: n/a
once again, the degrees symbol has come out as a '1'...... more Q's to follow.......
SECTION 2 - 061 02 - MAGNETISM AND COMPASSES
1 A Magnetic Compass is most effective at:
a. The Equator
b. The South Magnetic Pole
c. The North Magnetic Pole
d. A position roughly half way between the magnetic poles 1 min (1)
2 The value of magnetic variation:
a. Must be 01 at the Magnetic Equator
b. Has a maximum of 1801
c. Varies between a maximum of 451 East and 451 West
d. Cannot exceed 901 1 min (1)
3 The lines on a chart joining places of equal magnetic dip are called:
a. Aclinic lines
b. Isogonals
c. Isoclinals
d. Agonic lines 1 min (1)
4 An aircraft is accelerating on a westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere; the effect on a Direct Reading Compass will result in:
a. An apparent turn to the West
b. An indication of a turn to the North
c. A decrease in the indicated reading
d. An indication of a turn to the South 1 min (1)
5 When should a DRC be 'swung'?
a. Every 6 months
b. Following a change of magnetic latitude
c. For night use
d. After flying in an area where lightning is visible 1 min (1)
6 The annunciator circuit of a remote indicating compass system is used when:
a. Setting the correct reading of the heading pointer
b. Compensating for deviation
c. Setting local variation
d. Synchronising the magnetic and gyro compass elements 1 min (1)
7 Given: True track 3481; drift 171 left; variation 321W; deviation 41E
What is the compass heading?
a. 3591
b. 0071
c. 3371
d. 0331 1 min (1)
8 Concerning a Direct Reading Compass in the Northern Hemisphere, it can be said:
a. On an easterly heading, a lateral acceleration produces an apparent turn to the South
b. On an easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration produces an apparent turn to the North
c. On a westerly heading, a lateral acceleration produces an apparent turn to the North
d. On a westerly heading, a longitudinal acceleration produces an apparent turn to the South 1 min (1)
9 Permanent magnetism in an aircraft arises mainly from:
a. Exposure to the Earth's Magnetic Field during normal operation
b. The effect of electrical currents flowing in wiring
c. Hammering and the effect of the Earth's Magnetic Field whilst under construction
d. The effect of electro-magnetic fields produced by electrical equipment 1 min (1)
10 The main advantage of a Remote Indicating Compass over a Direct Reading Compass is:
a. Less moving parts
b. It magnifies the Earth's Magnetic Field in order to attain greater accuracy
c. Less Maintenance
d. It senses rather than seeks the local Magnetic Meridian 1 min (1)
11 The sensitivity of a Direct Reading Compass is:
a. Inversely proportional to the vertical and horizontal components of the Earth's Magnetic Field
b. Inversely proportional to the vertical component of the Earth's Magnetic Field
c. Proportional to the horizontal component of the Earth's Magnetic Field
d. Inversely proportional to the horizontal component of the Earth's Magnetic Field 1 min (1)
12 An aircraft, in the Northern Hemisphere, turns right from 330(C) in a Rate 1 Turn for 30secs. As the aircraft rolls out, does the compass overread or underread and will liquid swirl increase or decrease the error?
Compass Liquid Swirl
a. Underread Decrease
b. Underread Increase
c. Overread Decrease
d. Overread Increase 2 min (2)
13 Variation is:
a. The angle between the direction indicated by a compass and Magnetic North
b. The angle between True North and Compass North
c. The angle between Magnetic North and True North
d. The angle between Magnetic Heading and Magnetic North 1 min (1)
14 At the Magnetic Equator:
a. The Angle of Dip is zero
b. Variation is zero
c. Deviation is zero
d. The isogonal is an agonic line 1 min (1)
15 Concerning the Earth's Magnetic Field:
a. It may be temporary, transient or permanent
b. The Angle of Dip is the angle between the vertical and the total magnetic field
c. It acts as though there is a large 'blue' magnetic pole in Northern Canada
d. It has no effect on aircraft deviation 1 min (1)
16 An aircraft is accelerating on a westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere. The effect on a Direct Reading Magnetic Comapss is:
Compass Apparent Turn Towards
a. Underreads North
b. Underreads South
c. Overreads North
d. Overreads South 2 min (2)
17 An aircraft, in the Northern Hemisphere, turns right from 135(C) in a Rate 1 Turn for 30secs. As the aircraft rolls out, the Direct Reading Magnetic Compass indicates a heading:
a. Less than 225(C)
b. Equal to 225(C)
c. Greater than 225(C)
d. Not possible to determine 2 min (2)
18 The agonic line:
a. Is midway between the North Magnetic Pole and the South Magnetic Pole
b. Follows the geographic Equator
c. Is the shorter distance between the respective True and Magnetic, North and South Poles
d. Follows two separate paths out of the North Magnetic Pole: one currently running through Western Europe; the other through the USA 1 min (1)
JAR REVISION QUESTIONS
SECTION 2 - 061 02 - MAGNETISM AND COMPASSES
Answers:
1 d
2 b
3 c
4 b
5 b
6 d
7 d
8 b
9 c
10 d
11 c
12 b
13 c
14 a
15 c
16 c
17 c
18 d
SECTION 2 - 061 02 - MAGNETISM AND COMPASSES
1 A Magnetic Compass is most effective at:
a. The Equator
b. The South Magnetic Pole
c. The North Magnetic Pole
d. A position roughly half way between the magnetic poles 1 min (1)
2 The value of magnetic variation:
a. Must be 01 at the Magnetic Equator
b. Has a maximum of 1801
c. Varies between a maximum of 451 East and 451 West
d. Cannot exceed 901 1 min (1)
3 The lines on a chart joining places of equal magnetic dip are called:
a. Aclinic lines
b. Isogonals
c. Isoclinals
d. Agonic lines 1 min (1)
4 An aircraft is accelerating on a westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere; the effect on a Direct Reading Compass will result in:
a. An apparent turn to the West
b. An indication of a turn to the North
c. A decrease in the indicated reading
d. An indication of a turn to the South 1 min (1)
5 When should a DRC be 'swung'?
a. Every 6 months
b. Following a change of magnetic latitude
c. For night use
d. After flying in an area where lightning is visible 1 min (1)
6 The annunciator circuit of a remote indicating compass system is used when:
a. Setting the correct reading of the heading pointer
b. Compensating for deviation
c. Setting local variation
d. Synchronising the magnetic and gyro compass elements 1 min (1)
7 Given: True track 3481; drift 171 left; variation 321W; deviation 41E
What is the compass heading?
a. 3591
b. 0071
c. 3371
d. 0331 1 min (1)
8 Concerning a Direct Reading Compass in the Northern Hemisphere, it can be said:
a. On an easterly heading, a lateral acceleration produces an apparent turn to the South
b. On an easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration produces an apparent turn to the North
c. On a westerly heading, a lateral acceleration produces an apparent turn to the North
d. On a westerly heading, a longitudinal acceleration produces an apparent turn to the South 1 min (1)
9 Permanent magnetism in an aircraft arises mainly from:
a. Exposure to the Earth's Magnetic Field during normal operation
b. The effect of electrical currents flowing in wiring
c. Hammering and the effect of the Earth's Magnetic Field whilst under construction
d. The effect of electro-magnetic fields produced by electrical equipment 1 min (1)
10 The main advantage of a Remote Indicating Compass over a Direct Reading Compass is:
a. Less moving parts
b. It magnifies the Earth's Magnetic Field in order to attain greater accuracy
c. Less Maintenance
d. It senses rather than seeks the local Magnetic Meridian 1 min (1)
11 The sensitivity of a Direct Reading Compass is:
a. Inversely proportional to the vertical and horizontal components of the Earth's Magnetic Field
b. Inversely proportional to the vertical component of the Earth's Magnetic Field
c. Proportional to the horizontal component of the Earth's Magnetic Field
d. Inversely proportional to the horizontal component of the Earth's Magnetic Field 1 min (1)
12 An aircraft, in the Northern Hemisphere, turns right from 330(C) in a Rate 1 Turn for 30secs. As the aircraft rolls out, does the compass overread or underread and will liquid swirl increase or decrease the error?
Compass Liquid Swirl
a. Underread Decrease
b. Underread Increase
c. Overread Decrease
d. Overread Increase 2 min (2)
13 Variation is:
a. The angle between the direction indicated by a compass and Magnetic North
b. The angle between True North and Compass North
c. The angle between Magnetic North and True North
d. The angle between Magnetic Heading and Magnetic North 1 min (1)
14 At the Magnetic Equator:
a. The Angle of Dip is zero
b. Variation is zero
c. Deviation is zero
d. The isogonal is an agonic line 1 min (1)
15 Concerning the Earth's Magnetic Field:
a. It may be temporary, transient or permanent
b. The Angle of Dip is the angle between the vertical and the total magnetic field
c. It acts as though there is a large 'blue' magnetic pole in Northern Canada
d. It has no effect on aircraft deviation 1 min (1)
16 An aircraft is accelerating on a westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere. The effect on a Direct Reading Magnetic Comapss is:
Compass Apparent Turn Towards
a. Underreads North
b. Underreads South
c. Overreads North
d. Overreads South 2 min (2)
17 An aircraft, in the Northern Hemisphere, turns right from 135(C) in a Rate 1 Turn for 30secs. As the aircraft rolls out, the Direct Reading Magnetic Compass indicates a heading:
a. Less than 225(C)
b. Equal to 225(C)
c. Greater than 225(C)
d. Not possible to determine 2 min (2)
18 The agonic line:
a. Is midway between the North Magnetic Pole and the South Magnetic Pole
b. Follows the geographic Equator
c. Is the shorter distance between the respective True and Magnetic, North and South Poles
d. Follows two separate paths out of the North Magnetic Pole: one currently running through Western Europe; the other through the USA 1 min (1)
JAR REVISION QUESTIONS
SECTION 2 - 061 02 - MAGNETISM AND COMPASSES
Answers:
1 d
2 b
3 c
4 b
5 b
6 d
7 d
8 b
9 c
10 d
11 c
12 b
13 c
14 a
15 c
16 c
17 c
18 d
Guest
Posts: n/a
as promised, some more questions for you guys..... same problem as before..... degrees symbol has been replaced by a '1'....
SECTION 3 - 061 03 - CHARTS
1 What is the main use of the Oblique Mercator chart?
a. For better topographical coverage in Polar regions
b. Route charts for selected Great Circle Routes
c. For countries with large changes in latitude and small changes in longitude
d. Topograhical chart of Equatorial regions 1 min (1)
2 At N60100' on a Mercator chart the scale is 1:5,000,000; the length of a line on the chart between C N60100' E008100' and D N60100' W008100' is:
a. 19.2cm
b. 16.2cm
c. 17.8cm
d. 35.6cm 2 min (2)
3 Scale on a conformal chart is:
a. Constant over the whole chart
b. Constant along a meridian of longitude
c. Constant along a parallel of latitude
d. Varies with latitude and longitude 1 min (1)
4 The appearance of a rhumb line on a Mercator chart is:
a. A small circle concave to the nearer pole
b. A straight line
c. A spiral curve
d. A curved line 1 min (1)
5 The distance on a Lambert's chart, between two parallels of latitude the same number of degrees apart:
a. Is constant all over the chart
b. Is constant between the Standard Parallels, and expands outside them
c. Expands between the Standard Parallels, but reduces outside them
d. Reduces between the Standard Parallels, but expands outside them (1)
6 A Lambert's Conformal Conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.75.
The initial course of a straight line track drawn on this chart from A (N40100' W050100') to B is 0431(T) at A; the course at B is 0551(T).
What is the longitude of B?
a. 34100'W
b. 36100'W
c. 38100'W
d. 41100'W 2 min (2)
7 Given: Grivation 61W
Variation 101W
What is the value of Convergence?
a. 41E
b. 161W
c. 161E
d. 41W 1 min (1)
8 Given: Aircraft position S80100' E140100'
Aircraft tracking 0251(G)
If the grid is aligned with the Greenwich Anti-Meridian, the True track is:
a. 2451
b. 2051
c. 1651
d. 0651 2 min (2)
9 The scale quoted on a Lamberts chart is:
a. The scale at the Standard Parallels
b. The scale at the Equator
c. The mean scale between the Pole and the Equator
d. The mean scale at the Parallel of the Secant of the Cone 1 min (1)
10 The symbol for a CTR on an aeronautical chart is:
a. _______________________________
b. _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
c. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
d. _______________________________ 1 min (1)
11 On a normal Mercator chart, scale:
a. Expands as the secant2(½ co-latitude)
b. Expands directly with the secant of the latitude
c. Is correct on the Standard Parallels, expands outside them and contracts within them
d. Expands as the secant of the E/W great circle distance 1 min (1)
12 The chart symbol for the boundary of advisory airspace is:
a. _____________________
b. ___ ___ ___ ___
c. . . . . . . . . . .
d. _____________________ 1 min (1)
13 On a conformal chart, scale is:
a. Constant
b. Constant along a meridian of longitude
c. Variable; it varies as a function of latitude and longitude
d. Constant along a parallel of latitude 1 min (1)
14 A Lambert's Conformal Conical chart has standard parallels at 63100'N and 41100'N. The constant of the cone is:
a. 0.891
b. 0.788
c. 0.656
d. 0.707 2 min (2)
15 On a chart, 49nm is represented by 7.0cm; the scale of the chart is:
a. 1:700,000
b. 1:2,015,396
c. 1:1,296,400
d. 1:1,156,600 2 min (2)
16 On a Direct Mercator Chart, great circles are shown as:
a. Curves convex to the nearer Pole
b. Straight lines
c. Rhumb lines
d. Curves concave to the nearer Pole 1 min (1)
17 On a Transverse Mercator chart scale is correct at:
a. The 1801 meridian
b. The False Meridian
c. The Great Circle of Tangency
d. The Meridian of Tangency 1 min (1)
18 A pilot navigates from A to B on 70100'N on a Polar Stereographic chart. A is at 60100'W, B is at 60100'E; the initial track at A is:
a. 0301
b. 1501
c. 3501
d. 2101 1 min (1)
19 Isogrivs on a chart indicate lines of:
a. Zero magnetic variation
b. Equal magnetic dip
c. Equal horizontal directive force
d. Equal grivation 1 min (1)
20 On a Mercator chart the scale at the Equator is 1:3,704,000; the scale of the chart at 60100'S is:
a. 1:3,704,000
b. 1:1,852,000
c. 1:3,207,758
d. 1:7,408,000 2 min (2)
PPSC JAR REVISION QUESTIONS
SECTION 3 - 061 03 - CHARTS
Answers:
1 b
2 c
3 c
4 b
5 d
6 a
7 a
8 d
9 a
10 b
11 c
12 c
13 b
14 a
15 d
16 c
17 b
18 c
19 c
20 b
SECTION 3 - 061 03 - CHARTS
1 What is the main use of the Oblique Mercator chart?
a. For better topographical coverage in Polar regions
b. Route charts for selected Great Circle Routes
c. For countries with large changes in latitude and small changes in longitude
d. Topograhical chart of Equatorial regions 1 min (1)
2 At N60100' on a Mercator chart the scale is 1:5,000,000; the length of a line on the chart between C N60100' E008100' and D N60100' W008100' is:
a. 19.2cm
b. 16.2cm
c. 17.8cm
d. 35.6cm 2 min (2)
3 Scale on a conformal chart is:
a. Constant over the whole chart
b. Constant along a meridian of longitude
c. Constant along a parallel of latitude
d. Varies with latitude and longitude 1 min (1)
4 The appearance of a rhumb line on a Mercator chart is:
a. A small circle concave to the nearer pole
b. A straight line
c. A spiral curve
d. A curved line 1 min (1)
5 The distance on a Lambert's chart, between two parallels of latitude the same number of degrees apart:
a. Is constant all over the chart
b. Is constant between the Standard Parallels, and expands outside them
c. Expands between the Standard Parallels, but reduces outside them
d. Reduces between the Standard Parallels, but expands outside them (1)
6 A Lambert's Conformal Conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.75.
The initial course of a straight line track drawn on this chart from A (N40100' W050100') to B is 0431(T) at A; the course at B is 0551(T).
What is the longitude of B?
a. 34100'W
b. 36100'W
c. 38100'W
d. 41100'W 2 min (2)
7 Given: Grivation 61W
Variation 101W
What is the value of Convergence?
a. 41E
b. 161W
c. 161E
d. 41W 1 min (1)
8 Given: Aircraft position S80100' E140100'
Aircraft tracking 0251(G)
If the grid is aligned with the Greenwich Anti-Meridian, the True track is:
a. 2451
b. 2051
c. 1651
d. 0651 2 min (2)
9 The scale quoted on a Lamberts chart is:
a. The scale at the Standard Parallels
b. The scale at the Equator
c. The mean scale between the Pole and the Equator
d. The mean scale at the Parallel of the Secant of the Cone 1 min (1)
10 The symbol for a CTR on an aeronautical chart is:
a. _______________________________
b. _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
c. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
d. _______________________________ 1 min (1)
11 On a normal Mercator chart, scale:
a. Expands as the secant2(½ co-latitude)
b. Expands directly with the secant of the latitude
c. Is correct on the Standard Parallels, expands outside them and contracts within them
d. Expands as the secant of the E/W great circle distance 1 min (1)
12 The chart symbol for the boundary of advisory airspace is:
a. _____________________
b. ___ ___ ___ ___
c. . . . . . . . . . .
d. _____________________ 1 min (1)
13 On a conformal chart, scale is:
a. Constant
b. Constant along a meridian of longitude
c. Variable; it varies as a function of latitude and longitude
d. Constant along a parallel of latitude 1 min (1)
14 A Lambert's Conformal Conical chart has standard parallels at 63100'N and 41100'N. The constant of the cone is:
a. 0.891
b. 0.788
c. 0.656
d. 0.707 2 min (2)
15 On a chart, 49nm is represented by 7.0cm; the scale of the chart is:
a. 1:700,000
b. 1:2,015,396
c. 1:1,296,400
d. 1:1,156,600 2 min (2)
16 On a Direct Mercator Chart, great circles are shown as:
a. Curves convex to the nearer Pole
b. Straight lines
c. Rhumb lines
d. Curves concave to the nearer Pole 1 min (1)
17 On a Transverse Mercator chart scale is correct at:
a. The 1801 meridian
b. The False Meridian
c. The Great Circle of Tangency
d. The Meridian of Tangency 1 min (1)
18 A pilot navigates from A to B on 70100'N on a Polar Stereographic chart. A is at 60100'W, B is at 60100'E; the initial track at A is:
a. 0301
b. 1501
c. 3501
d. 2101 1 min (1)
19 Isogrivs on a chart indicate lines of:
a. Zero magnetic variation
b. Equal magnetic dip
c. Equal horizontal directive force
d. Equal grivation 1 min (1)
20 On a Mercator chart the scale at the Equator is 1:3,704,000; the scale of the chart at 60100'S is:
a. 1:3,704,000
b. 1:1,852,000
c. 1:3,207,758
d. 1:7,408,000 2 min (2)
PPSC JAR REVISION QUESTIONS
SECTION 3 - 061 03 - CHARTS
Answers:
1 b
2 c
3 c
4 b
5 d
6 a
7 a
8 d
9 a
10 b
11 c
12 c
13 b
14 a
15 d
16 c
17 b
18 c
19 c
20 b
Guest
Posts: n/a
OOOPS!!!
I have discovered that the answers I posted to Section 3 - Charts for Q's 11-19 inclusive were incorrect...... sorry for any confusion caused..... the correct answers are as follows:
PPSC JAR REVISION QUESTIONS
SECTION 3 - 061 03 - CHARTS
Answers:
1 b
2 c
3 c
4 b
5 d
6 a
7 a
8 d
9 a
10 b
11 b
12 b
13 d
14 b
15 c
16 a
17 d
18 a
19 d
20 b
Once again, apologies for any confusion.... my excuse is..... um..... I don't have an excuse!!
I have discovered that the answers I posted to Section 3 - Charts for Q's 11-19 inclusive were incorrect...... sorry for any confusion caused..... the correct answers are as follows:
PPSC JAR REVISION QUESTIONS
SECTION 3 - 061 03 - CHARTS
Answers:
1 b
2 c
3 c
4 b
5 d
6 a
7 a
8 d
9 a
10 b
11 b
12 b
13 d
14 b
15 c
16 a
17 d
18 a
19 d
20 b
Once again, apologies for any confusion.... my excuse is..... um..... I don't have an excuse!!
Guest
Posts: n/a
Now I am a worried man!
I finished all my exams two years ago.
I have just looked at this thread out of curiousity and I looked at most of the questions with a blank look on my face. I don't mean they are any worse than the CAA exams, I am alarmed at how quickly I have forgotten everything I learned!
Most of us 'bin it' the moment we have passed each exam, it does make you wonder, what is the point?
Just thought I'd share my insecurities with you!
JWF
I finished all my exams two years ago.
I have just looked at this thread out of curiousity and I looked at most of the questions with a blank look on my face. I don't mean they are any worse than the CAA exams, I am alarmed at how quickly I have forgotten everything I learned!
Most of us 'bin it' the moment we have passed each exam, it does make you wonder, what is the point?
Just thought I'd share my insecurities with you!
JWF
Guest
Posts: n/a
WOOAAAAHHHHH!!!!!!!
What the f**k!?!?!?
I am just at the end of my PPL training and looking at these questions i am a little stunned. I take thses are questions from the ATPL theory?. If so, are you taught the answers to these questions in the course?
By the way what school does everyone recommend for Ground school, i am looking at ATA Coventry.
Cheers
What the f**k!?!?!?
I am just at the end of my PPL training and looking at these questions i am a little stunned. I take thses are questions from the ATPL theory?. If so, are you taught the answers to these questions in the course?
By the way what school does everyone recommend for Ground school, i am looking at ATA Coventry.
Cheers
Guest
Posts: n/a
Whilst these questions may look hard, they really are not once you have done a bit of work. Certainly everyone I have spoken to agrees that Nav Gen is one of the easier exams especially now that there has been some feedback, and the schools know exactly what to teach.
Rob, I think it is fair to say that a good school will not teach you the answers, but will instead teach you how to work out the answers.
------------------
CW
The original not the imposter!
Rob, I think it is fair to say that a good school will not teach you the answers, but will instead teach you how to work out the answers.
------------------
CW
The original not the imposter!
Guest
Posts: n/a
ok.... here's the next batch of questions..... once again, the degrees symbol has been turned into a '1'.... hope these are helping....
PPSC REVISION QUESTIONS
SECTION 4 - 061 04 - DR NAVIGATION
1 Given: GS = 510kts; distance A to B = 43nm
What is the time (min) from A to B?
a. 7
b. 5
c. 4
d. 6 1 min (1)
2 Given: True track 3521
Variation 111W
Deviation is -51
Drift 101R
Calculate the compass heading.
a. 3581
b. 3461
c. 0181
d. 0251 1 min (1)
3 Given: True course from A to B = 0901
TAS = 460 kts
W/V = 360/100
Average variation = 101E
Deviation = -21
Calculate the compass heading and GS.
a. 0691 - 448kts
b. 0681 - 460kts
c. 0781 - 450kts
d. 0701 - 453kts 3 min (3)
4 Given: IAS 120kts
FL80
OAT +201C
What is the TAS?
a. 102kts
b. 120kts
c. 132kts
d. 141kts 1 min (1)
5 An aircraft travels 100 statute miles in 20 min. How long does it take to travel 215nm?
a. 50 min
b. 80 min
c. 90 min
d. 100 min 1 min (1)
6 What is the ratio between the litre and the US-GAL?
a. 1 US-GAL equals 4.55 litres
b. 1 litre equals 3.78 US-GAL
c. 1 US-GAL equals 3.78 litres
d. 1 litre equals 4.55 US-GAL 1 min (1)
7 An aeroplane is flying at TAS 180kts on a track of 0901. The W/V is 045/50kts. The distance that the aeroplane can fly out from its base and return in one hour is:
a. 56nm
b. 85nm
c. 88nm
d. 176nm 2 min (2)
8 For a landing on runway 23 (2271 Magnetic) surface W/V reported by the ATIS is 180/30kts; variation is 131E. Calculate the cross wind component?
a. 15kts
b. 20kts
c. 23kts
d. 26kts 2 min (2)
9 Given: TAS = 472kts
True HDG = 0051
W/V = 1101/50kts
Calculate the drift angle and GS.
a. 61R - 487kts
b. 71R - 491kts
c. 71L - 491kts
d. 61L - 487kts 2 min (2)
10 Given: TAS = 227kts
Track (T) = 3161
W/V = 2051/15kts
Calculate the HDG (1T) and GS.
a. 3111 - 230kts
b. 3121 - 232kts
c. 3131 - 235kts
d. 3101 - 233kts 2 min (2)
11 Given: Magnetic track = 2101
HDG = 2151(M)
VAR = 151E
TAS = 360kts
The aircraft flies 64nm in 12 min
Calculate the W/V (1T)
a. 195/52kt
b. 355/15kt
c. 263/50kt
d. 258/53kt 2 min (2)
12 Given: True HDG = 1451
TAS = 240kts
Track (1T) = 1501
GS = 210kts
Calculate the W/V
a. 115/35kt
b. 180/35kt
c. 295/35kt
d. 360/35kt 2 min (2)
13 Given: TAS = 155kts
HDG (1T) = 2161
W/V = 0901/60kts
Calculate the Track (1T) and GS
a. 2221 - 181kts
b. 2241 - 175kts
c. 2261 - 186kts
d. 2311 - 196kts 2 min (2)
14 Indicated outside air temperature -301C; TAS 438kts. What is the COAT?
a. -351C
b. -411C
c. -471C
d. -501C 1 min (1)
15 Given: Pressure Altitude = 29000ft
OAT = -501
Calculate the Density Altitude.
a. 26000ft
b. 27000ft
c. 31000ft
d. 33500ft 2 min (2)
16 The distance Q to R is 3016nm; TAS is 480kts. Flying outbound Q to R the headwind component is calculated as 90kts and the tailwind component R to Q is 75kts. Leaving Q at 1320UTC, what is the ETA at the Point of Equal Time?
a. 1631UTC
b. 1802UTC
c. 1702UTC
d. 1752UTC 2 min (2)
17 An aircraft was over Q at 1320UTC flying direct to R.
Given: Distance Q to R 3016nm
True Airspeed 480kts
Mean wind component 'out' -90kts
Mean wind component 'back' +75kts
Safe endurance 10:00 hours
The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) is:
a. 2370nm
b. 2290nm
c. 1310nm
d. 1510nm 2 min (2)
18 Given: M0.9
FL370
OAT -701C
Determine CAS:
a. 500kts
b. 281kts
c. 293kts
d. 268kts 2 min (2)
19 Given: Pressure Altitude = 27,000ft
Mach No = 0.45
OAT = -351C
W/V = 270/85
Track = 2001(T)
What is drift and groundspeed?
a. 181L 252kts
b. 151R 310kts
c. 171L 228kts
d. 171R 287kts 2 min (2)
20 Given: GS = 240kts
Distance to go = 500nm
What is time to go?
a. 20 mins
b. 29 mins
c. 2 hrs 05 mins
d. 2 hrs 12 mins 1 min (1)
21 Given: Pressure Altitude = 5,000ft
OAT = +351C
What is true altitude?
a. 4550ft
b. 5550ft
c. 4290ft
d. 5320ft 1 min (1)
22 Given: Course = 0401(T)
TAS = 120kts
Wind speed = 30kts
From which direction will the wind give the greatest drift?
a. 2151(T)
b. 2401(T)
c. 2351(T)
d. 2301(T) 2 min (2)
23 Given: Required Course = 0451(T)
W/V = 190/30
FL = 55
OAT = ISA
Variation = 151E
CAS = 120kts
What is Magnetic Heading and GS?
a. 0521(M) 154kts
b. 0671(M) 154kts
c. 0371(M) 154kts
d. 0371(M) 113kts 2 min (2)
24 The Compass Heading is 0901(C). Deviation is 21W and Variation is 121E. The TAS is 160kts. The aircraft is on the 0701 radial outbound from a VOR and has flown 14nm in 6 minutes. What is the W/V?
a. 048/51
b. 160/50
c. 340/25
d. 055/25 2 min (2)
25 Given: Course = 0401(T)
TAS = 120kts
Wind speed = 30kts
From which direction will the wind give the greatest drift?
a. 1401(T)
b. 1351(T)
c. 0901(T)
d. 1001(T) 2 min (2)
26 Given: Groundspeed = 540kts
Distance to go = 72nm
The time to go is:
a. 8 mins
b. 9 mins
c. 12 mins
d. 18 mins 1 min (1)
27 An aircraft is on a 31 ILS glideslope which passes over the runway threshold at 50ft. The DME range is 25nm from the threshold. The height above the runway threshold elevation is:
a. 8010ft
b. 7450ft
c. 6450ft
d. 7650ft 2 min (2)
28 Given: Pressure Altitude = 29,000ft
SAT = -551C
The density altitude is:
a. 27,500ft
b. 26,000ft
c. 30,000ft
d. 31,000ft 1 min (1)
29 Given: Distance A to B = 2368nm
Groundspeed outbound = 365kts
Groundspeed homebound = 480kts
Safe endurance = 8hrs 30min
The time to the PNR is:
a. 290 minutes
b. 209 minutes
c. 219 minutes
d. 190 minutes 2 min (2)
30 An aircraft is on a 12% glidepath; the groundspeed is 540kts. The rate of descent required is:
a. 6550'/min
b. 4820'/min
c. 8740'/min
d. 3120'/min 2 min (2)
PPSC JAR REVISION QUESTIONS
SECTION 4 - 061 04 - DR NAVIGATION
Answers:
1 b
2 a
3 a
4 d
5 a
6 c
7 b
8 c
9 d
10 b
11 c
12 a
13 d
14 d
15 b
16 d
17 b
18 c
19 c
20 c
21 b
22 b
23 c
24 b
25 b
26 a
27 d
28 a
29 a
30 a
good luck everyone
PPSC REVISION QUESTIONS
SECTION 4 - 061 04 - DR NAVIGATION
1 Given: GS = 510kts; distance A to B = 43nm
What is the time (min) from A to B?
a. 7
b. 5
c. 4
d. 6 1 min (1)
2 Given: True track 3521
Variation 111W
Deviation is -51
Drift 101R
Calculate the compass heading.
a. 3581
b. 3461
c. 0181
d. 0251 1 min (1)
3 Given: True course from A to B = 0901
TAS = 460 kts
W/V = 360/100
Average variation = 101E
Deviation = -21
Calculate the compass heading and GS.
a. 0691 - 448kts
b. 0681 - 460kts
c. 0781 - 450kts
d. 0701 - 453kts 3 min (3)
4 Given: IAS 120kts
FL80
OAT +201C
What is the TAS?
a. 102kts
b. 120kts
c. 132kts
d. 141kts 1 min (1)
5 An aircraft travels 100 statute miles in 20 min. How long does it take to travel 215nm?
a. 50 min
b. 80 min
c. 90 min
d. 100 min 1 min (1)
6 What is the ratio between the litre and the US-GAL?
a. 1 US-GAL equals 4.55 litres
b. 1 litre equals 3.78 US-GAL
c. 1 US-GAL equals 3.78 litres
d. 1 litre equals 4.55 US-GAL 1 min (1)
7 An aeroplane is flying at TAS 180kts on a track of 0901. The W/V is 045/50kts. The distance that the aeroplane can fly out from its base and return in one hour is:
a. 56nm
b. 85nm
c. 88nm
d. 176nm 2 min (2)
8 For a landing on runway 23 (2271 Magnetic) surface W/V reported by the ATIS is 180/30kts; variation is 131E. Calculate the cross wind component?
a. 15kts
b. 20kts
c. 23kts
d. 26kts 2 min (2)
9 Given: TAS = 472kts
True HDG = 0051
W/V = 1101/50kts
Calculate the drift angle and GS.
a. 61R - 487kts
b. 71R - 491kts
c. 71L - 491kts
d. 61L - 487kts 2 min (2)
10 Given: TAS = 227kts
Track (T) = 3161
W/V = 2051/15kts
Calculate the HDG (1T) and GS.
a. 3111 - 230kts
b. 3121 - 232kts
c. 3131 - 235kts
d. 3101 - 233kts 2 min (2)
11 Given: Magnetic track = 2101
HDG = 2151(M)
VAR = 151E
TAS = 360kts
The aircraft flies 64nm in 12 min
Calculate the W/V (1T)
a. 195/52kt
b. 355/15kt
c. 263/50kt
d. 258/53kt 2 min (2)
12 Given: True HDG = 1451
TAS = 240kts
Track (1T) = 1501
GS = 210kts
Calculate the W/V
a. 115/35kt
b. 180/35kt
c. 295/35kt
d. 360/35kt 2 min (2)
13 Given: TAS = 155kts
HDG (1T) = 2161
W/V = 0901/60kts
Calculate the Track (1T) and GS
a. 2221 - 181kts
b. 2241 - 175kts
c. 2261 - 186kts
d. 2311 - 196kts 2 min (2)
14 Indicated outside air temperature -301C; TAS 438kts. What is the COAT?
a. -351C
b. -411C
c. -471C
d. -501C 1 min (1)
15 Given: Pressure Altitude = 29000ft
OAT = -501
Calculate the Density Altitude.
a. 26000ft
b. 27000ft
c. 31000ft
d. 33500ft 2 min (2)
16 The distance Q to R is 3016nm; TAS is 480kts. Flying outbound Q to R the headwind component is calculated as 90kts and the tailwind component R to Q is 75kts. Leaving Q at 1320UTC, what is the ETA at the Point of Equal Time?
a. 1631UTC
b. 1802UTC
c. 1702UTC
d. 1752UTC 2 min (2)
17 An aircraft was over Q at 1320UTC flying direct to R.
Given: Distance Q to R 3016nm
True Airspeed 480kts
Mean wind component 'out' -90kts
Mean wind component 'back' +75kts
Safe endurance 10:00 hours
The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) is:
a. 2370nm
b. 2290nm
c. 1310nm
d. 1510nm 2 min (2)
18 Given: M0.9
FL370
OAT -701C
Determine CAS:
a. 500kts
b. 281kts
c. 293kts
d. 268kts 2 min (2)
19 Given: Pressure Altitude = 27,000ft
Mach No = 0.45
OAT = -351C
W/V = 270/85
Track = 2001(T)
What is drift and groundspeed?
a. 181L 252kts
b. 151R 310kts
c. 171L 228kts
d. 171R 287kts 2 min (2)
20 Given: GS = 240kts
Distance to go = 500nm
What is time to go?
a. 20 mins
b. 29 mins
c. 2 hrs 05 mins
d. 2 hrs 12 mins 1 min (1)
21 Given: Pressure Altitude = 5,000ft
OAT = +351C
What is true altitude?
a. 4550ft
b. 5550ft
c. 4290ft
d. 5320ft 1 min (1)
22 Given: Course = 0401(T)
TAS = 120kts
Wind speed = 30kts
From which direction will the wind give the greatest drift?
a. 2151(T)
b. 2401(T)
c. 2351(T)
d. 2301(T) 2 min (2)
23 Given: Required Course = 0451(T)
W/V = 190/30
FL = 55
OAT = ISA
Variation = 151E
CAS = 120kts
What is Magnetic Heading and GS?
a. 0521(M) 154kts
b. 0671(M) 154kts
c. 0371(M) 154kts
d. 0371(M) 113kts 2 min (2)
24 The Compass Heading is 0901(C). Deviation is 21W and Variation is 121E. The TAS is 160kts. The aircraft is on the 0701 radial outbound from a VOR and has flown 14nm in 6 minutes. What is the W/V?
a. 048/51
b. 160/50
c. 340/25
d. 055/25 2 min (2)
25 Given: Course = 0401(T)
TAS = 120kts
Wind speed = 30kts
From which direction will the wind give the greatest drift?
a. 1401(T)
b. 1351(T)
c. 0901(T)
d. 1001(T) 2 min (2)
26 Given: Groundspeed = 540kts
Distance to go = 72nm
The time to go is:
a. 8 mins
b. 9 mins
c. 12 mins
d. 18 mins 1 min (1)
27 An aircraft is on a 31 ILS glideslope which passes over the runway threshold at 50ft. The DME range is 25nm from the threshold. The height above the runway threshold elevation is:
a. 8010ft
b. 7450ft
c. 6450ft
d. 7650ft 2 min (2)
28 Given: Pressure Altitude = 29,000ft
SAT = -551C
The density altitude is:
a. 27,500ft
b. 26,000ft
c. 30,000ft
d. 31,000ft 1 min (1)
29 Given: Distance A to B = 2368nm
Groundspeed outbound = 365kts
Groundspeed homebound = 480kts
Safe endurance = 8hrs 30min
The time to the PNR is:
a. 290 minutes
b. 209 minutes
c. 219 minutes
d. 190 minutes 2 min (2)
30 An aircraft is on a 12% glidepath; the groundspeed is 540kts. The rate of descent required is:
a. 6550'/min
b. 4820'/min
c. 8740'/min
d. 3120'/min 2 min (2)
PPSC JAR REVISION QUESTIONS
SECTION 4 - 061 04 - DR NAVIGATION
Answers:
1 b
2 a
3 a
4 d
5 a
6 c
7 b
8 c
9 d
10 b
11 c
12 a
13 d
14 d
15 b
16 d
17 b
18 c
19 c
20 c
21 b
22 b
23 c
24 b
25 b
26 a
27 d
28 a
29 a
30 a
good luck everyone
Guest
Posts: n/a
I dont mean to contradict what the other guys have been saying - but this does not seem that much different to CPL Nav.
Am I wrong or do a just have a superb knowlege of aviation? I doubt the later so whats your opinion - much harder than CPL?
Thanks in advance!
Also what do you regard an "easy" subject to LEARN via correspondence besides Human Factors? -Already done
[This message has been edited by kiwi_boy (edited 19 June 2001).]
Am I wrong or do a just have a superb knowlege of aviation? I doubt the later so whats your opinion - much harder than CPL?
Thanks in advance!
Also what do you regard an "easy" subject to LEARN via correspondence besides Human Factors? -Already done
[This message has been edited by kiwi_boy (edited 19 June 2001).]
Guest
Posts: n/a
Todays PPRuNe Wannabe Award goes to BackSeatDriver! Top marks mate!
I can see where you are coming from Deputy Dog. I would suspect this has been thought of before but I'm adding my name to the list.
Any moderators care to add their two-pence worth to this very good idea from DD? At the end of the day good humoured quips and heated debate is the backbone of this site but, ultimately, for the wannabes it has to come second place to hard facts and question & answer threads like this one does it not?
Thanks again BSD!
VFE.
I can see where you are coming from Deputy Dog. I would suspect this has been thought of before but I'm adding my name to the list.
Any moderators care to add their two-pence worth to this very good idea from DD? At the end of the day good humoured quips and heated debate is the backbone of this site but, ultimately, for the wannabes it has to come second place to hard facts and question & answer threads like this one does it not?
Thanks again BSD!
VFE.
Guest
Posts: n/a
Studying for the recent papers Ive seen questions and notes from a number of schools inc that one in Bmouth, Oxford, Bristol & Coventry. I also had the pleasure of siting Gen Nav recently. An want to point out that I saw questions similar (if not identical) to some of the ones above in the exam AND more importantly found numerous repeated identically across the notes!
I appreciate that feedback etc is a great selling point for a school and having worked in publishing I fully understand the copyright laws. But still have to say "does it really matter (in the great scheme of things) where these came" from if they help people pass.
I appreciate that feedback etc is a great selling point for a school and having worked in publishing I fully understand the copyright laws. But still have to say "does it really matter (in the great scheme of things) where these came" from if they help people pass.
Guest
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Dear BackSeatDriver,
Thanks a lot- very helpful indeed! The questions are very helpful in giving us the type of questions which may come up in the exam.
Could we clarify one point, however, a most important one, we presume that you are satisfied that the answers are accurate? (Other than the ones you immediately clarified in Section 3) In other words, are the answers the "official" ones, rather than what has been remembered?
Thanks again for the input.
Thanks a lot- very helpful indeed! The questions are very helpful in giving us the type of questions which may come up in the exam.
Could we clarify one point, however, a most important one, we presume that you are satisfied that the answers are accurate? (Other than the ones you immediately clarified in Section 3) In other words, are the answers the "official" ones, rather than what has been remembered?
Thanks again for the input.
Guest
Posts: n/a
Re the idea of starting a forum for JAA questions - or indeed posting questions so blatantly on these pages...
Is there not a rather large danger that nasty Mr JAA will see his questions being aired publicly, and will just delete them from the question bank and replace them with a whole new load of questions (at which point we have the old problem of bad translations, q's that don't make sense, answers too close together, etc)?
Not to be a killjoy, but the reason that schools tend not to air their feedback too blatantly is because they want the questions to stay in the question bank.
Is there not a rather large danger that nasty Mr JAA will see his questions being aired publicly, and will just delete them from the question bank and replace them with a whole new load of questions (at which point we have the old problem of bad translations, q's that don't make sense, answers too close together, etc)?
Not to be a killjoy, but the reason that schools tend not to air their feedback too blatantly is because they want the questions to stay in the question bank.
Guest
Posts: n/a
Oshkosh - don't worry, the schools have been publishing this stuff for their students for ages, and openly sharing feedback questions and querrying them with the CAA if they think the question is unfair (eg reaction times of birds question now removed!). Some have instructors utside exam rooms to debrief students!
ATC nightmare, this is also my opinion (does it matter etc) and to a degree that of some schools. However this material does take time to write and there have been law suits for copyright material. Hope you passed Nav Gen (if not, any specific questions you are welcome to ask!)
------------------
'Me here at last on the ground, you in mid air'
ATC nightmare, this is also my opinion (does it matter etc) and to a degree that of some schools. However this material does take time to write and there have been law suits for copyright material. Hope you passed Nav Gen (if not, any specific questions you are welcome to ask!)
------------------
'Me here at last on the ground, you in mid air'
Guest
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A number of interesting points have cropped up lately, so I thought I would take the time to answer some of them....
Send Clowns asked where I got the questions from.....
The questions came from a variety of different sources including other ground schools, but most came from our own students at PPSC and some have been corroborated by an 'impeccable' source. As to the question of copyright, the only outfit that can really lay claim to the copyright of these questions is JAA itself, but since the questions are used in public exams, they are in the public domain and (like University Examinations) can be used by anyone. As far as I am concerned (and this point was agreed with the MD) our 'feedback' questions are NOT copyright, which is why when I hand them out to our students I print 'Courtesy of PPSC' on them and NOT the copyright symbol. My hope is that the questions WILL get circulated and that was the whole point of 'publishing' them in this forum.
ATCNightmare asked 'does it really matter' where they came from......
I think I have explained my attitude to that....
Tosh McCaber asked about the accuracy of the answers to the questions........
I can only say that I have spent a great deal of my (non-company) time going through the answers AND questions checking their accuracy and adjusting them where I felt necessary. I should point out, however, that there are STILL some, shall we say, contentious questions; in those cases I have highlighted what we BELIEVE are the 'required' answers (as opposed to 'correct' ones). Having said all that, I am only human, so I reserve the right to be wrong (Good grief!! Did I REALLY say that???). Oh... and Tosh, thank you for your kind words; nice to know my efforts have been appreciated.
Oshkosh suggested that nasty Mr JAA might delete the questions from the data bank.......
If I thought there was the slightest possibilty that JAA could amend their question database that quickly, I wouldn't have bothered putting the questions here. The amendment procedure is so protracted and complicated, I'm not even sure THEY understand it! It is true that new questions are being added to the database, but the whole system seems to be run by committees populated by European fatcats who don't talk to each other and seem incapable of organising a p***-*p in a brewery, let alone actually agreeing on anything..... (just my personal opinion!!) Incidentally, I think our CAA is simply doing the best they can (in trying circumstances) to establish some order on the chaos that the other Member States have created (again, my personal opinion!! Who was that calling me a cynic? See me later!!)
OK.... think that's all for now, I will be pushing out another section of questions shortly..........
[This message has been edited by BackSeatDriver (edited 24 June 2001).]
Send Clowns asked where I got the questions from.....
The questions came from a variety of different sources including other ground schools, but most came from our own students at PPSC and some have been corroborated by an 'impeccable' source. As to the question of copyright, the only outfit that can really lay claim to the copyright of these questions is JAA itself, but since the questions are used in public exams, they are in the public domain and (like University Examinations) can be used by anyone. As far as I am concerned (and this point was agreed with the MD) our 'feedback' questions are NOT copyright, which is why when I hand them out to our students I print 'Courtesy of PPSC' on them and NOT the copyright symbol. My hope is that the questions WILL get circulated and that was the whole point of 'publishing' them in this forum.
ATCNightmare asked 'does it really matter' where they came from......
I think I have explained my attitude to that....
Tosh McCaber asked about the accuracy of the answers to the questions........
I can only say that I have spent a great deal of my (non-company) time going through the answers AND questions checking their accuracy and adjusting them where I felt necessary. I should point out, however, that there are STILL some, shall we say, contentious questions; in those cases I have highlighted what we BELIEVE are the 'required' answers (as opposed to 'correct' ones). Having said all that, I am only human, so I reserve the right to be wrong (Good grief!! Did I REALLY say that???). Oh... and Tosh, thank you for your kind words; nice to know my efforts have been appreciated.
Oshkosh suggested that nasty Mr JAA might delete the questions from the data bank.......
If I thought there was the slightest possibilty that JAA could amend their question database that quickly, I wouldn't have bothered putting the questions here. The amendment procedure is so protracted and complicated, I'm not even sure THEY understand it! It is true that new questions are being added to the database, but the whole system seems to be run by committees populated by European fatcats who don't talk to each other and seem incapable of organising a p***-*p in a brewery, let alone actually agreeing on anything..... (just my personal opinion!!) Incidentally, I think our CAA is simply doing the best they can (in trying circumstances) to establish some order on the chaos that the other Member States have created (again, my personal opinion!! Who was that calling me a cynic? See me later!!)
OK.... think that's all for now, I will be pushing out another section of questions shortly..........
[This message has been edited by BackSeatDriver (edited 24 June 2001).]