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Old 9th Sep 2011, 21:27
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This is to put an end to all the requests that are flooding the indigo and jet airways thread.

Credit goes to sonsal and other people who put in their efforts to compile this.

I request you to please delete your requests from other threads.

aadityaslg is offline  
Old 9th Sep 2011, 21:33
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INDIGO QUESTION BANK!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

What is ssr mode for hijack
Wht mode will u enter when nothing is given by the atc tower
Wht does a dumbell with two perpendicular line mean
In a magnetc forces z is
Directly proportional to h
Inversely to z
Inversly to h
Around 20 questions came from human perform
Semicercular canal is a part of
Inner ear
Outer ear
Middle ear
Oxygen is carried by
Redblood cell
Whiteblood cell
Body fat
Angular acceleration is caused by
Some questions on
Seat of pants
remedy for hyperventilation-talk loud
met- just 5-6 quest
factors of formation of cu clouds
unstable turbulance good visibility
some quest on insolation
steam fog- when cold air flows over warm sea
calculate the temp using isa lapse rate
principal of flights
where is weight acted when on ground
between the wheels and the undercarriage
aft of cg
few questions on cg aft and forward effect
on a level turn
stall speed increases
load fact decreases
defination of
pressuure alt
lots of quest on acceleration and undershoot overshoot magnetic compass
Near the pitot tube which pressure is calculated
Total pressure
Dynamic pressure
Pitot pressure
cdmvt 3 quest
radio aids dint come much except for a lot of numericals
on vhf range
dme dist calcul
time problems
question on tcas
Paper mostly had Human Performance questions,lots of nav numericals(CDMVT,drift,Departure),Turning
errors in Magnetic Compass,About 5 questions on CG,Find slant rage DME 2 numericals,Met-steam
fog,lapse rate(basic questions),Regs basics about 7 questions-Visibilty,SSR codes,Ground Air Light
Some of the Human Perf Questions I can recollect
Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is about:[/B]
21% oxygen,78% nitrogen, 1% other gases.
Oxygen, combined with haemoglobin in blood is transported by:
red blood cells
The heart muscle is supplied with blood from
the coronary arteries.
Inhaling carbon monoxide can be extremely dangerous during flying. Which of the following statement(s)
is/are correct?
Carbon monoxide is odourless and cannot be smelled.
The proprioceptive senses (Seat of-the-Pants-Sense):
give wrong information, when outside visual reference is lost
The purpose of the semicircular canals
Sense angular acceleration
With vertigo the instrument-panel seems to tumble . This is due to
the Coriolis effect in the semicircular canals
Although we have a field of vision of more than 180° it is important during flight to use the scan ning
technique, because:
only in the foveal area resolution is good enough to see an object clearly
When a pilot is starring at an isolated stationary light for several seconds in the dark he might get the
illusion that:
the light is moving
The relationship between arousal and flying performance is
approximately the form of an inverted U

1. Readability 2 means readable now n then
2.I understand and will comply with the message- a.Roger ( Answer) b. Wilco
3. Marshall's signal to apply brakes
4. An aircraft is intercepted by another aircraft,what frequency you will communicate this on- a. 121.5 Mhz
to 243 Mhz b. 121.5 mhz to 125.5 mhz
5. Range of DME is correct within a.3% of range b.0.5 NM c. 0.2 NM
6. Accuracy of DME is a. + - 0.5 NM b. Increases as aircraft is flying at closer range
7. DME is able to discriminate between pulses intended for itself and for other a/c coz it rejects the pulses
not synchronized with its own random PRF
8. Flashing green lights to a/c already taxing on ground means-
9. Whiteout means a. A/c is flying over a snow covered lake and related options
10.ILS Cat III (a) RVR is a. 200 mts b. 250 mts
11. theta =3 degree TAS=100 kts ROD=** ANS: 500 feet/minute
12.TCAS operation uses a. transponder replies from other a/c b. a special system installed on board
13.DME uses frequency a.1000 MHZ b. 100 Mhz c. 100 KHZ
14.Question related to Primary and Secondary Radar. Primary radar relies on target reflection and
secondary radar on transponder replies
15. Which is the most prominent error of NDB - Quadrental Error
16.A signal is received after fading at the receiver,Which is the most likely reason a.Quadrental Error b.
Night effect c. mountainous/terrain effect d. Coastal error
17.90% of water vapour is present in a. troposphere b. lower stratosphere
18. A-B 90Nm Along the track 60 nm from A, aircraft is positioned 4nm to right.What is the correction
required to track directly to B a. 12 left b. 8 left
19.NDB frequency a.190-1750 KHZ
20.Which of the following is present in Middle Ear a. Embolym b. Ossicles c. Semi-circular canal d.
vestibular apparatus
21. VLE speed is a. the landing gear speed with full safety and related options
22.Blue line speed is a. Vyse b. Vmc c. Vne d. Vmo
23.mach No. Definiton
24. Divergence brings in what kind of weather
25. Echoes are received 30 degree to left.A/c hdg is 120 M , Find QTE?
26. Convergency. SH, C.A.=7, P-Q=95 Degree GC ,P-Q RL=? Ans is 088 Degree
27. Perihelion occurs a. Beginning of January b. Beginning of July
28.Civil twilight a.6 degree below the celestial horizon
29.Lines joining places of equal variation are ISOGONALS
30.Class B airspace Met Minima above 10000 feet
31.Met minima for 4500-9000 feet outside controlled airspace
32.A (45N 10 W)and B(48*30** N 15 W) Find the A-B RL track a. 300 b.330 c.345
33.a. ND shows flight director bars
b.PFD is the main flying instruent
c.Altitude information is displayed on PFD
d.FMA related option
Combination of correct answers was given
34.Stage 2 sleep comprises of 50% of sleep.
35.100% Acuity is achieved at FOVEA
36.On reaching the saturation vapour pressure, a. it will stay at the same temperature b. it will become
colder c. it will become warmer
37. An a/c has been hijacked and is asked to commence a descend,It cannot notify ATC of its actions. a. It
will fly an Emergency triangle b, Declare emergency c. Descend to an altitude which is at a deviation of
1000 ft wen flying FL290 above and 500fr if below FL290
38.Time of Useful consciousness at 35000feet is-
39, What SSR code is used for Emergency- 7700
40.An aircraft flyign with left static port blocked will- a. over read when side slipping towards port b.
overread when side slipping towards starboard
41.Airfield is 0 metres above MSL,OAT is not given.QNH = 1022 HPa , QFF=? a. Less than 1022 b. more
than 1022 c. 1022 d. Information is not sufficient to determine
42.One or more several static ports have been blocked on board a unpressurised aircraft.Correct remedial
action will be- break the glass of Rate of climb indicator
43.Upsloping runway will give an illusion of - ??
44. Worload is defined as- a.90% of crew resources have been utilized b. 60% of crew resources have
been utilized c. Depends on Pilot expertise d. Availability of resources Combinations of answers is correct
45.Myopia is- a. Nearsightedness b. Farsightedness
46.NDB signal transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is a. omni-directional b. Bi-lobar
pattern c. Cardiod balanced at 30HZ freq.
47.Physiological gases are a. O2 and CO2 b. O2 and CO , Two more combinations were given
48.Ice on the aircraft surfaces will increase the landing distance by a. 40-50% b. 30-40% c.10-15%
49.Stress management is
50.With respect to CO which of the following statements is correct- a. it has 5 Times affinity to attach with
hemoglobin than oxygen b. It causes Hypoxia
51.100% oxygen corresponds to the FL of a. 10000 b. 40000
52. Cognitive Stress is-
53. On a 5 dot indicator, an a/c is flying at a range of 100Nm on a airway. How many dots will correspond
to the deviation? a.1.5 dots b.2 dots c.3 dots
54.A pilot experiences bends in joints after the Flight, a. Seek Aviation Medical Assistance immediately b.
Ignore as it will get better with time
55.Tidal Volume is- Answer is 500ML
56. To prevent Vertigo- Avoid rapid head movement during the turns
57. A ( 004N 30W ) aircraft flies 600 NM south then 600 NM east, 600 NM north, 600 NM west. Aircraft's
present position is?
58. When acknowledging mode and code pulse from ATC,pilot will reply by a. Repeating both mode and
code pulse b. repeat only code pulse
59.Variation is applied at beacon on VOR and at A/C for NDB.
60.FL 150 , TAS=250 Kts , OAT= --12Degree Icing will occur- a. Over flat terrain,away from
fronts,moderate to severe Mixed Ice b. Pushed by clouds against the mountains,moderate to severe Mixed
Ice c. Moderate to severe Rime Ice
61.A/C magnetic hdg is 120, variation= 17W track is 15 degree to the left of HDG. NDB bears (given in
question) ,What will be the NDB bearing to plot on a Polar stereo graphic chart?
62.A/C is going from A (QNH 1012HPa) to B (QNH 1012Hpa), the altimeter reading differs.What could be
the possible reason for this? a. Aircraft is flying over a warmer airmass b. Flying over a colder airmass c.
Altimeter error
63. Dew Point and Air temperature are less than 1 Degree apart, what kind of weather will occur as a result
a. Fog and Stratus b. clear sky
64. CU and CB are formed due to a. Convection b. radiation
65. Fog is a.<1000 mts visibilty due to solid and ice particles
b. <1000 mts visibility due to solid and liquid particles
c.< = 1000 mts due to ice and .......... particles
d. < 1000 due to presence of precipitation
66.Geostrophic winds are proportional to a. density if air b. curvature of isobars
66.Average height of Stratosphere is a. 11 to 50 KM b. 50 to 85 KM
67.When is the coldest time of the day. 30 minutes after sunrise

DGCA stuff, squawk code, type of transponder, class 'B' VFR above 10,000MSL etc.
Find height of tropopause from charts
Lapse rate questions
A/C flying south in southern hemi with stbd drift, which pressure is it flying into?
What is pressure alt?
when are pressure alt n density alt same?
Human Performance
Rate of alcohol consumption in body
Middle and inner ear related questions
Eye questions including fovea and rods
Diagrams of AH and you have to identify the one with the given condition
Altimeter numerical
flying from A to B, speed 0.84M. Distance 300nm, you have to increase your ETA by 2min, when will you
decrease your speed? Previous ETA was given
Speed/Time problems
Local time numerical
AOA questions
First few questions were of Air Regulation:
. Height and radius of VFR in congested Areas
. Fl to be flown in case of unlawful interference
. Fl to be flown, True Heading was given along with variation and deviation, but what flight, VFR or IFR
wasn't given.
. Steady green light when a/c is on ground
. Series of red lights when a/c is in flight
. Two questions were there on the radio failure in IFR.
. Conditions in front of Stationary Front
. Chart was given with Isobars and fronts along with TAF clearly showing features of cold front, had identify
the station
Human Performance
. Two questions on stress a
. What behavior is not good in team work
. Alcohol is filtered by which organ
. What is the Chart length between 180E and 180W on same lat .
. Chart length was given on 59 lat, what is the chart length on some other lat
. Three Alternates were given with the course and the wind component, which alternate is close in terms of
. A to B distance was given and wind component, what is the total time between A to B and then back to A.
. What is the GS and Heading, Course and Wind component were given
. QNH of ground is 1023 and elevation is 1500, how much you have to climb for FL 750
. In Mercator chart RL is a straight or curved line ?
. What is the Drift on **lat?
. What is the distance when an A/C descends 15000ft at the rate of 1500ft/min
. Radio Altimeter turns Analog to Circular at - a. below 1000ft, b. at or below 1000ft, c. at DH.
. One Altimeter is calibrated for Inst./Pos. error and other 1 is not, what happens is IAS changes
. Power of NDB is 100KW what is the range?
. Increase in altitude but Angle of Attack, mass and IAS remains same, what happens to the Angle of Climb
. With Increase in altitude what happens to the TAS and Drag
time &rel velocities
hysterisis error
combination of what all site errors adf has
topple of DGI at pole
topple/wander of DGI at somewhere else on earth
where does the wing mounted compass send its signals..amplifier/dgi etc
1 question on taf with a miniature map asking you to identify the airport it applies to
CDMVT 2-3 q
bearing 2-3 q.. NDB bearing & qdm etc given
what does attitude indicator indicate after straight level flight 180 deg turn...
load factor in a turn
stall speed
stall angle
speed ...direction latitude of place
Lambert's departure
cp pnr
Eustachian tube
REM sleep
Q1. When an altimeter is used for SSR it is always referenced to:
A) 1013.25 hPa
B) The pressure setting in use
Q2. If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and another
altimeter which is not, and all other factors being equal:
A) there will be no difference between them if air the data computer is functioning normally.
B) At high speed the non compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude.
C) at high speed, the non compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude.
D) ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR.
Q3. VLO is defined as:
A) Minimum possible speed that the aircraft could lift off the ground
B) The maximum speed for landing gear operation
C) The long range cruise speed
D) Actual speed that the aircraft lifts off the ground
Q4. The rate of climb:
A) Is the downhill component of the true airspeed
B) Is angle of climb times true airspeed
C) Is the horizontal component of the true airspeed
D) Is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100
Q5.. For a single engine class B aeroplane, V2 may not be less than:
A) not applicable
B) 1.15Vs
C) 1.2Vs
D) 1.5Vs
Q6. Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
A) Is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed)
B) Is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made
a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off
C) Is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface
D) Is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or
discontinue the take-off
Q7. The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on:
A) the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane
B) the radius of the turn and the bank angle
C) the bank angle only
D) the true airspeed and the bank angle
Q8. Given the following:
True Course: 315°
Wind velocity: 230/40
TAS: 420 knots
What is the wind correction angle and the groundspeed? (WCA / GS)
A) -6° / 415
B) +6° / 425
C) +6° / 415
D) -6° / 425
Q9. How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75?
Departure aerodrome elevation = 1500 ft
QNH = 1023 hPa
Temperature = ISA
1 hPa = 30 ft
A) 7800 ft
B) 6300 ft
C) 6600 ft
D) 6000 ft
Q10. The measured course 042° T
The variation in the area is 6° W and the wind is calm
The deviation is 4° W
In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a compass heading of:
A) 044°
B) 058°
C) 040°
D) 052°
Q11. Linear acceleration can give a false impression of a:
A) climb.
B) turn.
C) descent.
D) spin.
Q12. Which of the following statements, if any, are correct?
Euphoria is a possible result of hypoxia
Euphoria can lead to degraded decisions in flight
A) Neither.
B) 1 & 2.
C) 1 only.
D) 2 only.
Q13. Clear ice is most often experienced, when the outside temperature is:
A) 0° to minus 20° C.
B) Minus 5° to minus 10° .
C) 0° to minus 5° C.
D) Minus 5° to plus 5°
Q14. FL 80, an OAT +06° C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL 130, if you consider the
temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere?
A) -6° C
B) 0° C
C) +2° C
D) -4° C
Q15. FL 160, an OAT -22° C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL 90, if you consider the
temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere?
A) -4° C
B) +4° C
C) 0° C
D) -8° C
Q16. An approximate equation for calculation conversion angle is:
A) CA=dlong x sin Lat. x sin Long.
B) CA=0,5 x dlat x sin Lat.
C) CA=(dlong-dlat) x 0,5.
D) CA=0,5 x dlong x sin lat.
Q17. Using an NDB it is possible to experience which of the following errors or limitations?
A) Night effect, station interference and latitude error.
B) Coastal refraction, timing error and lack of a failure warning system.
C) Coastal refraction, timing error and night effect.
D) Night effect, station interference and lack of a failure warning system.
Q18. On an EHSI display, wind velocity can be displayed in which of the following modes?
A) Map, Plan, Full ILS and Full VOR.
B) Expanded ILS, Expanded VOR, Plan and Full ILS.
C) Plan, Full ILS, Expanded VOR and Full VOR.
D) Map, Expanded ILS, Full ILS and Full VOR.
Q19. Radio altitude is shown on the EADI and changes from a digital display to a circular scale:
A) below 1000 ft AGL.
B) at 1000 ft and below AGL.
C) at 2500 ft.
D) at DH.
Q20. If the needle and the ball of a Turn & Slip indicator both show left, what does it indicate:
A) turn to left & too much bank.
B) turn to right & too little bank.
C) turn to left & too little bank.
D) turn to right & too much bank.
Q21. Following 180° stabilized turn with a constant attitude and bank, the artificial horizon indicates:
A) too high pitch up and too high banking.
B) attitude and banking correct.
C) too high pitch-up and correct banking.
D) too high pitch-up and too low banking.
Q22. The speed VLO is defined as:
A) the speed at which the aircraft leaves the ground, not more than V2 and not less than VR
B) the maximum speed for extending or retracting the landing gear
C) the minimum speed in the landing configuration with one engine inoperative at which it is possible to
maintain control of the aeroplane within defined limits whilst applying varying power
D) the stall speed in the landing configuration
Q23. Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:
A) decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb
B) improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY
C) improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX
D) decreases rate of climb and increase angle of climb
Q24. Given true track 352° , variation 11° W, deviation -5° and drift 10° S the required compass heading
A) 347°
B) 005°
C) 358°
D) 018°
Q24. What is the advantage of the remote indicating compass (slaved gyro compass) over the direct
reading magnetic compass?
A) It senses the earths magnetic field rather than seeks it, so is more sensitive.
B) It is connected to a source of electrical power and so is more accurate.
C) It is lighter.
D) It is not affected by aircraft deviation.
Q25. From position A (04° N 030° W) an aircraft flies 600 NM due south, then 600 NM due east, the 600
NM due north, then 600 NM due west. What is the aircrafts final position in relation to A?
A) Overhead A.
B) Due east of A.
C) Due west of A.
D) Due south of A.
Q26. On the 27th of February, at 52° S and 040° E, the sunrise is at 0243 UTC. On the same day, at 52° S
and 035° W, the sunrise is at: (SIMILAR)
A) 0243 UTC.
B) 0523 UTC.
C) 0743 UTC.
D) 2143 UTC.
Q27. The great circle track X - Y measured at x is 319° , and Y 325° Consider the following
A) Northern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 322° .
B) Northern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 313° .
C) Southern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 331° .
D) Southern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 322° .
Q28. On a typical computer generated SSR display the following data on a particular flight will be shown:
A) Squawk code, Flight level , True heading, Airplane callsign.
B) Destination, Flight level , Ground speed, Airplane callsign.
C) Squawk code, Magnetic heading , Ground speed, Airplane callsign.
D) Squawk code, Flight level , Ground speed, Airplane callsign.
Q29. A DME transponder does not respond to pulses received from radars other than DME because:
A) DME only responds to the strongest 100 interrogators.
B) DME transmits and receives on different frequencies.
C) it will only accept the unique twin DME pulses.
D) each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate.
Q30. An aircraft DME interrogator transmits pair of pulses for limited periods at switch on. The transmission
pattern is: (similar)
A) 15000 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 27 pps.
B) 270 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 150 pps until lock on, then 25-30 pps.
C) 27000 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 30 pps.
D) 150 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 27 pps.
Q31. An aircraft heading 325° (M) has an ADF reading of 330° Relative. The heading to steer to intercept
the 280° track inbound to the NDB at 50° is:
A) 340(M)
B) 330(M)
C) 310(M)
D) 320(M)
Q32. The maximum VHF range when flying at FL100 would beSIMILAR)
A) 120 nm
B) 100 nm
C) 85 nm
D) 12 nm
Q33. An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The aircraft is assumed
A) Land at the destination aerodrome.
B) Return to the aerodrome of departure.
C) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.
D) Land at the alternate aerodrome.
Q34. The procedure for an aircraft that suffers communications failure during an IFR flight in visual met
conditions, should:
A) Proceed direct to its destination.
B) Maintain at last cleared level and speed for 20 minutes and then continue in accordance with the flight
C) Carry out instrument approach at the nearest airfield.
D) Land at the nearest suitable airfield.
Q35. An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is assumed to:
A) Continue the flight to destination aerodrome in any case.
B) Leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace.
C) Squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodrome.
D) Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report its arrival.
Q36. Q.When acknowledging mode and code, pilot needs to:
a. Acknowledge code only
b. Acknowledge both code and mode
Q37. Q. What does series of green flashes indicate when on ground?
Q38. Q.Lift and drag depend on
a. Pressure distribution of wing aerofoil section
b. cambered airfoil
Q39. While turning the aircraft the pilot moves his/her head. What effect might the pilot be exposed to.
a) Coriolis Force
Q40. Decompression is caused by:
c) Nitrogen coming out of solution
Q41. The Retina
b) Receives light, through electrical reactions, converts it into electrical signals.
Q42. Hyperventilation is likely to occur as a result of:
B) the body attempting to compensate for a drop in partial oxygen pressure.
Q43. Generally a healthy person can compensate for the lack of oxygen with altitude upto:
10,000-12,000 feet.
Q44. Which gas diffuses from the blood to the lungs during external respiration?
Carbon Dioxide
Q45. Which illusion does linear acceleration cause?
46. 100% Oxygen without direct pressure onto the face can be used up to:
40,000 feet
Q47. When being affected by Flicker Effect, the pilot should
Turn off the strobe lights
Q49. With pulse rate of 72 beats a minute and a stroke volume of 70ml. what is the cardiac output.
5 litres a minute
Q50. A person suffering from Glaucoma will have
Increased pressure of the eye
Q51. Decompression sickness symptoms can occur
Following loss of cabin pressure at altitudes higher than 18,000 feet
Q52. The effect of carbon monoxide: Increases with altitude
Q53. Clear Ice forms at temp: Near Freezing
Q54. A passenger complains of an inflated stomach at 8,000 feet. What action would you advised the
passenger to take:
1. Unbuckle the seat belt and rub the stomach.
2. Avoid eating foods with fermentation qualities and or carbonated drinks.
3. Stand up and expel gases from the intestine.
4. Drink large amounts of water.
1,2,3 is correct 4 is false.
Q55. The metabolism of alcohol is affected by time
Q56.Hyperventilation can after a long period of time lead to unconsciousness due to.
low partial pressure of oxygen to the brain
Q57. The time of useful consciousness (TUC) following loss of cabin pressurization at 35,000 feet is.
Q58Under normal conditions which gas diffuses from the blood to the alveoli.
Carbon dioxide
Q59. Should a pilot fly with a bad cold he/she could suffer from: Sinus Pain
Q60. Above what height night vision can start to reduce?
5,000 feet
Q61. You suffer pain in an ear on a descent should you:
Level off and, if necessary climb to the level where it first occurred.
Q62. Q. An aircraft is flying over sea.FL 100.True altitude 10000ft.local QNH 1003. What can you say
about the airmass over which the aircraft is flying:
a. It is warmer than ISA
b. It is colder than ISA
c. Its average temperature is same as that of ISA
d.The information is not sufficient
Q63. Q.What kind of precipitation is from clouds found in middle latitudes:
a. Drizzle
c. Heavy rain with large droplets
d. Medium rain with large droplets
Q64. Q.What does series of red flashes from ATC mean for aircraft in flight?
airport unsafe to land
Q65. Q.When excessive carbon dioxide has been removed , the blood
a. becomes alkaline attaching more oxygen to haemoglobin at lungs
b. becomes acidic
Q66. Eustachian tube is to:
a. equalise pressue between middle ear and external atmosphere
b. equalise pressure between sinuses and external atmosphere
Q67. Apparent wander at 45 degrees north
Q68. Rhumb line on direct Mercator:
a. Straight line
b. Convex to nearer pole
Q69. Arousal:
a. Body preparedness for a difficult task
b.High level of arousal means high vigilance
c. All of the above
Q70.Time taken for body to adjust to circadian rhythm if flight time exceeds 24 hrs:IS 1-1.5 HR TIME
a. 1-1.5 hrs per day
Q. True track 358 Var 4 deg east. Flight level chosen will be:
a. FL 75
b. FL 80
c. FL 65
d. FL 70
Q71. Initial phase of lock on Aircraft to DME, the Aircraft's transmits at what pulses.
Q. In fever below 35 deg C.
a) mental disorders, coma
b) shivering tends to cease, apathy
Q72. Hysteresis error of altimeter is due to.
Q. In an unaccelerated flight weight =
Q. At 18,000 partial oxygen pressure is 1/2 of what at Sea level. what statement justifies it.
a) Oxygen 1/2 of what it is at sea level
b) blood is 50% saturated with oxygen
Q73. What is random error, choose from the following example.
a) A shooter mistakenly shoots from the gun
b) A shooter shoots 1 in away from the target
c) Pilot put wrong info in the FMS
Q74. Movement of air masses in the warm front.
Q. Heading indicator will stop rotating in the vertical plane at.
A) Equator
b) 45deg Lat
c) 30deg Lat
d) Poles
Q75. At medium lat Coriolis force experienced:
a) 7.5deg to right
b) 15deg to left
c) 7.5 deg to the left
d) 10.5 deg to the right
Q76. Range of NDB at 10 kw
a) 500nm
b) 100nm
c) 1000nm
d) 50nm
aadityaslg is offline  
Old 9th Sep 2011, 21:35
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Few more

increase in flaps will cause v2 to increase, decrease or remain unchanged.
is max cruise thrust greater, lesser or equal to max continous thrust
how does change in altitude affect specific fuel consumption(sfc) - increase, decrease, remains constant.
what is the best air:fuel ratio by weight for jet engines
at which point or region of a jet engine is the pressure at its highest
For a given aerofoil, the AOA which results in a stall:
(a) remains constant regardless of bank, load or TAS
(b) varies directly with the degree of bank
(c) varies with the speed of airflow around aerofoil
The stall speed of an aircraft will increase with:
(a) decrease in the load factor
(b) increase in the pitch attitude for straight and level
(c) increase in the all up weight of the aircraft
The three axis of an aircraft intersect at the:
(a) centre of pressure
(b) centre of gravity
(c) midpoint of the datum line
When approaching the stall, the separation point
(a) always stays in the same position
(b) moves rearward
(c) moves towards the transition point
The primary function of the rudder, while entering a turn from straight-and-level flight, is to:
(a) overcome yaw caused by lowered aileron on higher wing
(b) overcome yaw caused by lowered aileron on lower wing
(c) overcome yaw caused by raised aileron on higher wing
An aircraft is in a state of equilibrium in:
(a) a steady rate 1 turn
(b) in a steady climb
(c) during take off
Adverse aileron yaw is reduced by the use of:
(a) vortex generators
(b) frise type ailerons
(c) boundary layer fences
Flying near high ground or mountains with winds in excess of 15km, you can expect strong turbulence and
down draughts. What would you do to avoid damaging the aircraft and / or loosing control?
(a) maintain your heading and speed
(b) slow down to manoeuvring speed
(c) slow down to manoeuvring speed and fly upwind of ridge
On a cold, clear, humid night with a light wind, radiation fog will form. What might form when the wind picks
up to 15kts?
(a) dew
(b) frost
(c) stratus
Which clouds are the least likely to produce airframe icing?
(a) middle cloud
(b) high cloud
(c) vertical development cloud
1.accuracy of DME altimeter measures ??
a)true altitude
b)true height
c)2 more irrelevant opns..
{thr were 2 same ques}
3.if u r 210 NM away frm DME, y wont u get the indication?
4.on SSR whr is transponer nd interrogator?
5.VSI operates coz of difference in
6.LSS in troposphere?
7.VSI blocked during descent
8.2 ques on acceleration/deceleration error ques on turning error
10. RIC ques
11.speed of sound depends on?
12.circumference of earth
13.circumference at 60N
14.ques to calculate radius of cone of confusion
15.if u travel at some speed on circumference of equator at some tym...hw much speed u shud travel at 60
deg lat to travel at same tym.
speed at equator was given
R/T ques
1.readability 5 means?
2.phrase monitor
3.phrase go ahead
4.some basic radio call
1.height of high clouds
2.high clouds are
two more optons i dnt rem
3.sfc temp +10 deg C dew point temp +15 deg C.. wt will b the base of cloud?(ans 2000 feet)
4.2 ques related to subsidence
lost comm
alot of CG ques
rate of turn/radius of turn

-------------------------------THE END-----------------------------------
aadityaslg is offline  
Old 10th Sep 2011, 19:49
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hey nice work buddy!!
great help here!!
kshiteej_wizard is offline  
Old 11th Sep 2011, 04:41
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I'll Add a few more..

best luck guys ...

1. Double white cross on runway means.
2. Aircraft overtaking the other means
a. Angle of 80 with Symmetry axis
b. Angle of 70 with symmetry axis
3. Transponder to be set to what mode and code during radio comm failure.
4. When passing through transition layer, what will u report – (when in altitude and when in levels)
5. IFR obstacle clearances of normal areas and mountainous areas.
6. U want to do IFR flight in a controlled airspace, and don’t want advisory service, - do u need to file flight plan etc.
7. In an un accelerated level flight, the weight of the aircraft acts through.
a. C.P
b. C.G ETC
8. The weight of an Aircraft on ground acts:
a. C.P
b. C.G.
9. If the total moments of the arms are positive, then the reference is:
a. Nose of A/C
b. Centerline of wheels.
10. Exchange of oxygen from blood to cells and co2 from cells to blood is known as:
a. Internal resperation.
b. External respiration
11. Lazzie farie effect is a result of:
a. Lack of communication
b. Inverstion of authority.
12. Anderson model
13. During IMC, which sense should one believe:
a. Visusal sense, to interpret the attitude indicator,
b. Seats of the pants sense.
c. Vestibular sense.
14. Couple of question relating to the 12*root*Flight level formula.
15. A question on VHF range.
16. VOR co-ordinates given. Variation at VOR given. A/C co-ordinates given and variation at A/C given. On which radial is the aircraft.
17. Light gun signal or flashing green to a/c on ground.
18. Due to winds you have drifted away 3 NM to the left of course after 30 NM of 120 NM. Find correction angle to come back to track.
19. G.C A-B is 100. Lat is given. Find R.L A-B.
20. What is a compass swing done for.
21. Error between compass north and magnetic north is known as.
22. The magnetic pole goes around the true pole of the earth. How much time does is take for one such going around.
23. Auditory nerve is connected to:
a. Cochlea
b. Semi-circular canals-
c. Oliths
d. Cortex.
24. Question on given METAR of VIDP.
25. Cold air flowing over warm land:
a. Cumulous, poor vis.
b. Stratiform, good visbility,
c. Stratiform , poor visibility.
26. Liters of blood pumped by heart in a min ? (72 bpm, 70ml per beat.)
27. Frequency of HF to be halved or doubled during night.
cvchetan is offline  
Old 11th Sep 2011, 08:08
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Thanks brother, really appreciate your help
addy1847 is offline  
Old 12th Sep 2011, 01:04
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Why study when you can just cheat... Awesome. Reason 1 why I never fly Indian Airlines.
PCLCREW is offline  
Old 12th Sep 2011, 07:52
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Guys please remember that these questions are just a collection from previous
IndiGo exams .
Its not an official or unofficial question bank and there are no garuntees that these questions will be asked for the Indigo exams.

These questions are just to help you put your knowledge to the test .

Please make sure your theoretical fundamentals are strong


Nobody is cheating here bud . This is just a collection of questions that students experienced during the previous exams
This is just to help the those who are appearing for the test to put their knowledge to practice .
There are no garuntees that any of these questions will appear for future attempts
The pass rates for the IndiGo exams vary from 10%-50%

This question bank is akin to asking someone " Hey what questions did you get for the written exam ? "

If you think this is cheating....

WHat do you think about the official FAA question banks that are publicly available ? Some 121 carriers even use the same questions from the FAA question bank for their written exams
cyrilroy21 is offline  
Old 12th Sep 2011, 09:25
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Well said cyrilroy21..

Being prepared is not cheating.. and I believe anyone who is taking the Indigo Test is aware of the fact that these questions just guide you on what "pattern" to "expect"

@PCLCREW - Thank you for not flying with Indian Airlines..
aadityaslg is offline  
Old 15th Sep 2011, 16:43
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2.I understand and will comply with the message- a.Roger ( Answer) b. Wilco
Ans here is WILCO
elitepilot20 is offline  
Old 23rd Sep 2011, 14:38
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No No thank you for always ever expanding the reasons why I dont... Thanks again.
PCLCREW is offline  
Old 24th Sep 2011, 20:03
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People start contributing atleast a 10 question per post and it will help all....before all hungry ones start moaning about send me please send me there send me here....

If some of you want to appreciate the work and time given by few decent pilots who tried best to help others then kindly contribute 10 questions for their devotion and show them your sincere regards.
Johny Boy is offline  

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