Indigo Call letters for Freshers

[buddyaviator]

Guys Does anyone has any news on when is Indigo Gonna Induct the people who are waiting after finishing their A320 Type ratings & Skill Checks ?

[SSA]

Guys today's exam was easy but not like previous 2days.. Luckily I cleared this but I would really advice u guys not 2 stick 2 one sub like human performance or jus nav... 2days xam covered 60-65% tech with very much confusing options n not even single quest on met...

[_L_]

hello everyone, I am really confused about how to apply for indigo cae program. I have mailed twice about 6 months ago, and I didnt get any reply or response. How long do you have to wait before you can get a call for the exam? And do they notify you via email or phone?

Also can any one recommend or know any good ground classes in bangalore as I need to refresh my self with navigation(been long time since I have studied).

Thanks .

[weapon-x]

Guys ,

results out yet ???

[thearsenal]

Are there any more exam dates for indigo or only 16th 17th and 18th ofApril?

[snowleopard]

Books to use - Reg.

Hey guys,

I'd be glad if somebody could shed a little light on this.

I'm starting my CPL training in June. I have a whole month and I would like to prepare myself in advance before I start training.

Any idea on what would be the best books to use in preparing for the DGCA CPL theory papers (beginner; self study) would be of great help.

Regards,
SL

[thearsenal]

@snow leopard

get the pilots handbook of aeronautical knowledge, it'll get you oriented with everything. If you want to study for the cpl exams then get the Ground studies for pilots books. RK BALI book for regs.

[flexiflyer]

Here are the questions which I remember from the Indigo CAE written exam held on 18t

1. What is the Time of Useful Consciousness for a rapid decompression at 25.000 ft?
A) Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected pilot.
B) Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds.
C) About 18 seconds.
D) About 30 seconds.

2.Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse from the blood to the alveoli:
A) carbon dioxide.
B) carbon monoxide.
C) nitrogen.
D) oxygen.

3.The Eustachian tube serves for the pressure equalization between:
A) middle ear and external atmosphere.
B) frontal, nose and maxillary sinuses.
C) nose and pharyngeal cavity and external atmosphere.
D) sinuses of the nose and external atmosphere

4.Tuned resonance of body parts, distressing the individual , can be caused by:
A) angular velocity.
B) vibrations from 1 to 100 Hz.
C) acceleration along the longitudinal body axis.
D) vibrations from 16 Hz to 18 kHz

5.The risk of getting a spatial disorientation is growing, when:
A) the pilot is buckled too tight to his seat and cannot sense the attitude changes of the aircraft by his Seat-of- the-Pants-Sense.
B) information from the vestibular organ in the inner ear are ignored.
C) the pilot is performing an effective instrument cross-check and is ignoring illusions.
D) there is contradictory information between the instruments and the vestibular organs.

6.Positive linear acceleration when flying in IMC may cause a false sensation of:
A) pitching up.
B) vertigo.
C) pitching down.
D) apparent sideward movement of objects in the field of vision.

7.The ability of the human eye to read alphanumeric information (piercing vision):
A) is limited to the foveal area of the retina.
B) is limited to daytime using the rod cells.
C) is governed by peripheral vision over an area of approximately 20 degrees of angle.
D) is almost equally shared by the entire retina.

8.Flying a coordinated level turn will:
A) make the blood being pooled in the head.
B) make the body’ s pressure receptors feel an increased pressure along the body’ s vertical axis.
C) make the seat-of-the-pants sense feel a decreased pressure along the body’ s vertical axis.
D) first give the impression of climb , then the impression of descent.

9.REM (or Paradoxical Sleep) refreshes the ... whereas slow wave sleep revitalises the...
A) brain; body
B) body; brain
C) STM; LTM
D) LTM; STM

10.Noise Induced Hearing Loss (NIHL) is:
A) governed by the intensity of noise above the 103 dB level.
B) caused by damage to the eardrum or ossicles by noise above 90 dB.
C) caused by hearing deterioration as part of the process of ageing.
D) governed by intensity and duration of noise in excess of 90 dB.

11.Mental training, mental rehearsal of cognitive pertaining is called the inner, ideomotor simulation of actions.
A) It is most important for the acquisition of complex perceptual motor skills.
B) It is more effective than training by doing.
C) It is most important for self control.
D) It is most effective, if it is practiced on an abstract level if imagination.

12.Divided attention is the ability:

1.To execute several mental activities at almost the same time (i.e. when switching attention from outside the aircraft to the airspeed indicator on the instrument panel).
2.To monitor the progress of a motor programme (i.e. flying or taxiing the airplane) on a relatively subconscious level, while making a radio call at the same time (requiring a rather conscious level).
3.To select information and check if it is relevant to the task in hand. At the same time no other operation can be performed.
4.To delegate tasks to the co-pilot while concentrating on the procedures.

A)
1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
B) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
C) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false
D) Only 3 is false

13.Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are:
A) due mainly to a poor interpretation of instrumental data.
B) due mainly to a conflict between the various sensory systems.
C) associated with the task of mental construction of the environment.
D) solely induced in the absence of external reference points.

14.The gestalt laws formulates:
A) basic principles governing the relationship between stress and performance.
B) basic principles governing how objects are mentally organized and perceived.
C) basic principles regarding to the relationship between motivation and performance.
D) basic principles governing the effects of habit and experience.

15.What is divided attention?
A) Ease of concentrating on a particular objective.
B) Difficulty of concentrating on a particular objective.
C) Alternative management of several matters of interest.
D) The adverse effect of motivation which leads to ones attention being dispersed.

16.The use of check lists must be carried out in such a way that:
A) their execution may be done simultaneously with other actions.
B) their execution is not lumped together with important tasks.
C) it may be rejected since redundancy in the following check list will serve as verification.
D) their execution must not be done simultaneously with other actions.

17.Symptoms of decompression sickness:
A) are only relevant when diving.
B) are flatulence and pain in the middle ear.
C) are bends, chokes, skin manifestations, neurological symptoms and circulatory shock.
D) can only develop at altitudes of more than 40.000 ft.

18.Stress is a response which is prompted by the occurrence of various stressors. Of these, which can be called physiological?
A) Temperature, hunger, thirst, divorce
B) Noise, hunger, conflicts, a death
C) Noise, temperature (low or high), humidity, sleep deprivation
D) Heat, humidity, fatigue, administrative problems

19.What elements establish synergy within the crew?
A) Synergy establishes itself automatically within the crew, right through from briefing to debriefing.
B) It is only the captains status which allows the establishment of synergy within the crew.
C) Synergy is independent of the natural individual characteristics of the group members (communication, mutual confidence, sharing of tasks, etc.).
D) Synergy must be built up from the start of the mission (briefing) and be maintained until it comes to an end (debriefing).

20.A study by NASA has examined the relationships between incidents linked with ground-to-crew communication.
Which of the following factors is the main reason for disturbances in the correct reception of a message?
A) Radio failure.
B) Errors in understanding clearance values.
C) Mother tongue differing from working language.
D) Listening errors.

21.General Adaptation Syndrome is characterised by the following phases:
alarm
alert phase
resistance phase
exhaustion phase
vigilance phase
A) 1, 3, 4
B) 2, 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 4, 5
D) 2, 3, 4, 5

22.Stress may be defined as:
A) a psychological phenomenon which only affects fragile personalities.
B) a poorly controlled emotion which leads to a reduction in capabilities.
C) a normal phenomenon which enables an individual to adapt to encountered situations.
D) a human reaction which one must manage to eliminate.

23.The relationship between arousal and flying performance is:
A) approximately exponential.
B) approximately the form of an inverted U.
C) approximately linear increasing.
D) approximately sinusoidal.

24.On ascent the gases in the digestive tract will:
A) contract.
B) expand.
C) not be affected.
D) not possible to say - depends on rate of ascent.

25.The Eustachian tube is the passage way between the:
A) nasopharynx and the middle ear.
B) nose, pharynx and the external auditory canal.
C) sinuses and the pharynx.
D) nose, pharynx and inner ear.

26.What is divided attention?
A) Ease of concentrating on a particular objective.
B) Difficulty of concentrating on a particular objective.
C) Alternative management of several matters of interest.
D) The adverse effect of motivation which leads to ones attention being dispersed.

27.An NDB aerial is (i) so as to ensure the range is (ii) by minimising (iii) due to (iv):
A) (i) horizontal; (ii) maximum; (iii) diffraction; (iv) the ground wave
B) (i) vertical; (ii) maximum; (iii) attenuation; (iv) atmospheric refraction
C) (i) horizontal; (ii) maximum; (iii) refraction; (iv) the D layer
D) (i) vertical; (ii) maximum; (iii) attenuation; (iv) energy losses to the surface

28.What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHz?
A) 8 m
B) 800 m
C) 8000 m
D) 80 m

29.If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:
A) great circle track.
B) line of constant bearing.
C) rhumbline track.
D) constant magnetic track.

30.An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15° E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8° E. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
A) 262° .
B) 255° .
C) 278° .
D) 285° .

31.DME uses:
A) secondary radar.
B) primary radar from the aircraft and secondary radar from the ground.
C) primary radar from the ground and secondary radar from the aircraft.
D) primary radar.

32.The DME frequency band is:
A) VHF
B) UHF
C) HF

33.What is the Rate of Descent required to maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 135 knots.
A) 725 fpm.
B) 750 fpm.
C) 800 fpm.
D) 675 fpm.

34.Why is the effect of returns from storms not a problem with SSR?
A) The frequency is too high.
B) SSR does not use the echo principle.
C) By the use of MTI to remove stationary and slow moving returns.
D) The PRF is jittered.

35.The sky search carried out by a GNSS receiver:
A) is the procedure carried out by the monitoring stations to check the accuracy of the satellite data.
B) is done when the receiver position is in error.
C) is done prior to each fix.
D) involves the receiver downloading the almanac from each satellite before determining which satellites are in view.

36.A great circle track joins position A (59° S 141° W) and B (61° S 148° W). What is the difference between the great circle track at A and B?
A) It decreases by 6° .
B) It increases by 6° .
C) It increases by 3° .
D) It decreases by 3° .

37.What is the definition of Morning Civil Twilight?
A) The period when the sun, in the morning, has its centre between 6° under the horizon and the horizon.
B) Morning civil twilight is the period in the morning from the centre of the sun is 6° below the horizon until the upper limb of the sun appears at the horizon.
C) The period of semi-darkness in morning.
D) The period in the morning, just before sunrise.

38.The distance from A (S 27° 43 W 005° 15) to B(S 27° 43 E 018° 29):
A) 1299 nm
B) 1261 nm
C) 709 nm
D) 1151 nm

39.In a navigation chart a distance of 49 NM is equal to 7 cm. The scale of the chart is approximately:
A) 1 : 7 000 000.
B) 1 : 700 000.
C) 1 : 130 000.
D) 1 : 1 300 000.

40.The ICAO definition of ETA is the:
A) actual time of arrival at a point or fix.
B) estimated time of arrival at an en-route point or fix.
C) estimated time en route.
D) estimated time of arrival at destination.

41.Given: GS = 135 kt. Distance from A to B = 433 NM. What is the time from A to B?
A) 3 HR 12 MIN.
B) 3 HR 20 MIN.
C) 3 HR 25 MIN.
D) 3 HR 19 MIN.

42.Given: GS = 95 kt. Distance from A to B = 480 NM. What is the time from A to B?
A) 5 HR 00 MIN
B) 5 HR 08 MIN
C) 5 HR 03 MIN
D) 4 HR 59 MIN

43.Given: Maximum allowable tailwind component for landing 10 kt. Planned runway 05 (047° magnetic). The direction of the surface wind reported by ATIS 210° . Variation is 17° E. Calculate the maximum allowable windspeed that can be accepted without exceeding the tailwind limit?
A) 8 kt.
B) 15 kt.
C) 18 kt.
D) 11 kt.

44.An aircraft at FL330 is required to commence descent when 65 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL100.
The mean GS during the descent is 330 kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required?
A) 1650 FT/MIN.
B) 1750 FT/MIN.
C) 1850 FT/MIN.
D) 1950 FT/MIN.

45.The weight of an aeroplane, which is in level non accelerated flight, is said to act:
A) vertically through the datum point
B) vertically through the centre of pressure
C) always along the vertical axis of the aeroplane
D) vertically through the centre of gravity

46.With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be expected?
A) A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off
B) A decrease in range
C) A decrease of the stalling speed
D) A decrease in the landing speed

47.Standard masses for baggage can only be used when the aircraft has:
A) 20 seats or more
B) 9 seats or more
C) less than 30 seats
D) 30 seats or more

48.Considering only structural limitations, on very short legs with minimum take-off fuel, the traffic load is normally limited by:
A) Actual landing mass
B) Maximum take-off mass
C) Maximum landing mass
D) Maximum zero fuel mass

49.An aeroplane, which is scheduled to fly an oceanic sector, is due to depart from a high altitude airport in the tropics at 1400 local time. The airport has an exceptionally long runway. Which of the following is most likely to be the limiting factor(s) in determining the take - off mass?
A) altitude and temperature of the departure airfield
B) en route obstacle clearance requirements
C) maximum zero fuel mass
D) maximum certificated take - off mass
50.What are the correct SI units for density and force?
A) N/m3, Kg
B) Kg/N, Nm3
C) Kg/m3, Newton
D) Kg/m3, Kg

51.The Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) for a given wing of any platform is:
A) the chord of a large rectangular wing.
B) the wing area divided by the wing span.
C) the average chord of the actual aeroplane.
D) the chord of a rectangular wing with same moment and lift.

52.The centre of gravity moving aft will:
A) decrease the elevator up effectiveness.
B) increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location.
C) not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.
D) increase the elevator up effectiveness.

53.The total pressure is:
A) static pressure plus the dynamic pressure.
B) static pressure minus the dynamic pressure.
C) 1/2 rho V2
D) can be measured in a small hole in a surface, parallel to the local stream.

54.Lift and drag on an aerofoil are vertical respectively parallel to the:
A) longitudinal axis.
B) chord line.
C) relative wind/airflow.
D) horizon.

55.Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with dangerous stall characteristics. Dangerous stall characteristics include:
A) pitch down and minor wing drop.
B) excessive wing drop and deep stall.
C) pitch down and increase in speed.
D) pitch down and yaw.

56.Which of the following occurs when trailing edge flaps are extended?
A) The critical angle of attack decreases and CLMAX increases.
B) The critical angle of attack is constant, but CLMAX increases.
C) CLMAX increases and the critical angle of attack increases.
D) The critical angle of attack remains constant and stall speed increases.

57.Flutter may be caused by:
A) high airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.
B) roll control reversal.
C) low airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.
D) distortion by bending and torsion of the structure causing increasing vibration in the resonance frequency.

58.The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a large jet transport aeroplane with flaps extended is:
A) 2.0
B) 3.75
C) 2.5
D) 1.5

59.Which combination of speeds is applicable for structural strength in gust (clean configuration)?
A) 55 ft/sec and VB.
B) 65 ft/sec at all speeds.
C) 66 ft/sec and VD.
D) 50 ft/sec and VC.

60.When forward speed ..., the ... of the propeller blades (fixed pitch)...
A) increases, blade angle, increases.
B) increases, angle of attack, increases.
C) increases, angle of attack, decreases.
D) increases, blade angle, decreases.

61.The purpose of the CSU oil booster pump of a variable pitch propeller is to:
A) increase the engine oil pressure for propeller operation.
B) unfeather the propeller.
C) lubricate the constant speed unit.
D) increase engine oil pressure for propeller feathering.

62.Which of the following statements is correct?

1.VMCL is the minimum control speed in the landing configuration.
2.The speed VMCL can be limited by the available maximum roll rate

A) I is correct, II is correct.
B) I is incorrect, II is correct.
C) I is incorrect, II is incorrect.
D) I is correct, II is incorrect.

63.For a glider to obtain a maximum gliding distance, the airspeed to be flown is:
A) the minimum control speed.
B) the airspeed which corresponds to the best lift-to-drag ratio.
C) the minimum sink speed.
D) the minimum power speed.

64.In a steady banked turn the lift will:
A) equal the weight.
B) equal the resultant of weight and centrifugal force.
C) equal the centrifugal force minus the weight.
D) equal the centrifugal force.

And some questions were on DPNR and straight forward questions to calculate time to go.

[Jet Blast 007]

@flexiflyer

Thnx bud fr sharin d q's

[Eaglesmile]

Does anyone know when the next exam is going to be held? I havnt been receiving any letters from CAE and really want to appear for the exam. I have been sending emails to Parul and Radhika and have also reapplied with the CAE program with no luck. Please do post if anyone has any information. It would be great help. Thank you

[snowleopard]

@thearsenal

Thanks a million... Cheers...

[Uniform.]

@flexiflyer
Woooh..!!

Awesome man..! thanks

[smartflyier]

guys any suggestion on how to get a call for the exam??
never managed to get a call for the assessment.

[KKAARR]

Guys who cleared on 16th

Hey Fellas.. has anyone else got call for CASS on 22nd... ? ?

[Kingmaker500]

@flexiflyer..you remember 64 questions with the exact options and exact wordings!?? or did they allow you to take the question paper home(which i doubt). You must have a powerful memory!

[flexiflyer]

@Kingmaker500

With the grace of God I remember only these few questions out of 100.....

[blackbirdsr72]

Mr King maker... he has done a great thing by posting the questions in this forum to help you guys. rather than studying/referring the questions you are bothered about how he got the questions......

Regards
Blackbird SR 72

[aditya104]

Flexiflyer
May God shower more grace on you!

[cyrilroy21]

This time exams were conducted over a period of 3 days . The norm was usually 2 days with 50 candidates on each day .

So does that mean there were 150 candidates for April attempt ?

Can those of you who had the exams on the 16 , 17 , 18 confirm that there were atleast 50 candidates on each day of the exam ?
Any idea about the pass rates on each day ?

[flexiflyer]

@cyrilroy

on 16th 20-25, 17th 20-25 and 18th 19 candidates cleared the exam.....