Originally Posted by
skridlov
The physics involved is beyond me but the differences in mass and surface area combined with the difference between the media in which these vessels operate would make this something of an over-simplification. wouldn't it?
I really don't know, to be honest.
All down to the relative momentum of a ship vs Sea and airship vs air I guess. At least an airship in flight only has to worry about one medium. Ships have two to worry about.
I suppose the airship has to worry about gusts which I guess equates to waves.
I'm thinking these should equate due to the very nature of bouyancy?