I don't think that article applies to be honest.
Scotland was not absorbed into a
Greater England in 1707, as Wales was absorbed into the
Kingdom of England in 1535. If it had, then Article 35 would indeed apply in the event that Scotland sought to resume its former status as an independent sovereign state. (As it would in respect of Wales and England should Wales elect to become an independent sovereign state).
What in fact happened in 1707 was that two independent, sovereign states joined to create an entirely new independent sovereign state in the form of the
Kingdom of Great Britain. The
Kingdom of Scotland did not therefore join the
Kingdom of England, nor vice versa.
That the Two Kingdoms of Scotland and England, shall upon the 1st May next ensuing the date hereof, and forever after, be United into One Kingdom by the Name of GREAT BRITAIN. (Article 1)
Having jointly created the Kingdom of Great Britain, should either party then elect to dissolve the union of 1707, then logic if not law would suggest that the Kingdom of Great Britain will then cease to exist and the two parties concerned shall revert to their former status; namely the Kingdom of Scotland and the Kingdom of England, (which since 1535 has included Wales).
The United Kingdom of Great Britain & Nothern Ireland would therefore be replaced by two successor states: The Kingdom of Scotland and whatever title the remainder wished to be styled; The Kingdom of England & Northern Ireland, The United Kingdom of England & Northern Ireland, The United Kingdom of England, Wales & Northern Ireland, etc.
Therefore Article 35 would apply in respect of Wales and England, but it would not apply in respect of Scotland and Great Britain; Scotland did not 'join' Great Britain - it established it, together with England.