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Old 22nd Nov 2011, 07:56
  #25 (permalink)  
Metroboy
 
Join Date: May 1999
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The more shares you hold, the more money you have invested in the company, the more risk you have taken, the more rights you should have in terms of voting. If reflective of the profile of the shareholdings, it's absolutely right that, for example, 20% of the shareholders hold 80% of the votes. Why should I, with my $1000 worth of shares, have the same vote as someone who owns $10m?
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