Likewise, v1 provides for the aircraft suffering an engine failure at that speed...
Now, I don't want to be a smartarse but wouldn't an engine failure
at V1 always result in a continuation of the T/O?
For a reject at V1 the engine must have failed before V1 to allow time for the recognition of the failure and time for the reaction to the failure (ie thrust levers to full reverse, full initiation of braking and spoilers etc....). Apologies in advance if I'm wrong as I'm not an airline pilot yet but am just recalling knowledge from ATPL theory.
Kaptin M - good post mate.
