INDIGO QUESTION BANK
This is to put an end to all the requests that are flooding the indigo and jet airways thread.
Credit goes to sonsal and other people who put in their efforts to compile this. I request you to please delete your requests from other threads. Thanks. |
INDIGO QUESTION BANK!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
What is ssr mode for hijack
7500 7600 7700 Wht mode will u enter when nothing is given by the atc tower 0000 2200 7000 1234 Wht does a dumbell with two perpendicular line mean In a magnetc forces z is Directly proportional to h Inversely to z Inversly to h Around 20 questions came from human perform Semicercular canal is a part of Inner ear Outer ear Middle ear Oxygen is carried by Plasma Redblood cell Whiteblood cell Body fat Angular acceleration is caused by Ossicles Semicircularcanals Chleoa Some questions on Seat of pants aourosal remedy for hyperventilation-talk loud met- just 5-6 quest factors of formation of cu clouds unstable turbulance good visibility some quest on insolation steam fog- when cold air flows over warm sea calculate the temp using isa lapse rate principal of flights where is weight acted when on ground between the wheels and the undercarriage cg aft of cg few questions on cg aft and forward effect on a level turn stall speed increases decreases load fact decreases defination of vno pressuure alt lots of quest on acceleration and undershoot overshoot magnetic compass RIC ALTIMETER ERORS Near the pitot tube which pressure is calculated Total pressure Dynamic pressure Pitot pressure cdmvt 3 quest radio aids dint come much except for a lot of numericals on vhf range dme dist calcul time problems question on tcas Paper mostly had Human Performance questions,lots of nav numericals(CDMVT,drift,Departure),Turning errors in Magnetic Compass,About 5 questions on CG,Find slant rage DME 2 numericals,Met-steam fog,lapse rate(basic questions),Regs basics about 7 questions-Visibilty,SSR codes,Ground Air Light signals. Some of the Human Perf Questions I can recollect Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is about:[/B] 21% oxygen,78% nitrogen, 1% other gases. Oxygen, combined with haemoglobin in blood is transported by: red blood cells The heart muscle is supplied with blood from the coronary arteries. Inhaling carbon monoxide can be extremely dangerous during flying. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? Carbon monoxide is odourless and cannot be smelled. The proprioceptive senses (Seat of-the-Pants-Sense): give wrong information, when outside visual reference is lost The purpose of the semicircular canals Sense angular acceleration With vertigo the instrument-panel seems to tumble . This is due to the Coriolis effect in the semicircular canals Although we have a field of vision of more than 180° it is important during flight to use the scan ning technique, because: only in the foveal area resolution is good enough to see an object clearly When a pilot is starring at an isolated stationary light for several seconds in the dark he might get the illusion that: the light is moving The relationship between arousal and flying performance is approximately the form of an inverted U 1. Readability 2 means readable now n then 2.I understand and will comply with the message- a.Roger ( Answer) b. Wilco 3. Marshall's signal to apply brakes 4. An aircraft is intercepted by another aircraft,what frequency you will communicate this on- a. 121.5 Mhz to 243 Mhz b. 121.5 mhz to 125.5 mhz 5. Range of DME is correct within a.3% of range b.0.5 NM c. 0.2 NM 6. Accuracy of DME is a. + - 0.5 NM b. Increases as aircraft is flying at closer range 7. DME is able to discriminate between pulses intended for itself and for other a/c coz it rejects the pulses not synchronized with its own random PRF 8. Flashing green lights to a/c already taxing on ground means- 9. Whiteout means a. A/c is flying over a snow covered lake and related options 10.ILS Cat III (a) RVR is a. 200 mts b. 250 mts 11. theta =3 degree TAS=100 kts ROD=** ANS: 500 feet/minute 12.TCAS operation uses a. transponder replies from other a/c b. a special system installed on board 13.DME uses frequency a.1000 MHZ b. 100 Mhz c. 100 KHZ 14.Question related to Primary and Secondary Radar. Primary radar relies on target reflection and secondary radar on transponder replies 15. Which is the most prominent error of NDB - Quadrental Error 16.A signal is received after fading at the receiver,Which is the most likely reason a.Quadrental Error b. Night effect c. mountainous/terrain effect d. Coastal error 17.90% of water vapour is present in a. troposphere b. lower stratosphere 18. A-B 90Nm Along the track 60 nm from A, aircraft is positioned 4nm to right.What is the correction required to track directly to B a. 12 left b. 8 left 19.NDB frequency a.190-1750 KHZ 20.Which of the following is present in Middle Ear a. Embolym b. Ossicles c. Semi-circular canal d. vestibular apparatus 21. VLE speed is a. the landing gear speed with full safety and related options 22.Blue line speed is a. Vyse b. Vmc c. Vne d. Vmo 23.mach No. Definiton 24. Divergence brings in what kind of weather 25. Echoes are received 30 degree to left.A/c hdg is 120 M , Find QTE? 26. Convergency. SH, C.A.=7, P-Q=95 Degree GC ,P-Q RL=? Ans is 088 Degree 27. Perihelion occurs a. Beginning of January b. Beginning of July 28.Civil twilight a.6 degree below the celestial horizon 29.Lines joining places of equal variation are ISOGONALS 30.Class B airspace Met Minima above 10000 feet 31.Met minima for 4500-9000 feet outside controlled airspace 32.A (45N 10 W)and B(48*30** N 15 W) Find the A-B RL track a. 300 b.330 c.345 33.a. ND shows flight director bars b.PFD is the main flying instruent c.Altitude information is displayed on PFD d.FMA related option Combination of correct answers was given 34.Stage 2 sleep comprises of 50% of sleep. 35.100% Acuity is achieved at FOVEA 36.On reaching the saturation vapour pressure, a. it will stay at the same temperature b. it will become colder c. it will become warmer 37. An a/c has been hijacked and is asked to commence a descend,It cannot notify ATC of its actions. a. It will fly an Emergency triangle b, Declare emergency c. Descend to an altitude which is at a deviation of 1000 ft wen flying FL290 above and 500fr if below FL290 38.Time of Useful consciousness at 35000feet is- 39, What SSR code is used for Emergency- 7700 40.An aircraft flyign with left static port blocked will- a. over read when side slipping towards port b. overread when side slipping towards starboard 41.Airfield is 0 metres above MSL,OAT is not given.QNH = 1022 HPa , QFF=? a. Less than 1022 b. more than 1022 c. 1022 d. Information is not sufficient to determine 42.One or more several static ports have been blocked on board a unpressurised aircraft.Correct remedial action will be- break the glass of Rate of climb indicator 43.Upsloping runway will give an illusion of - ?? 44. Worload is defined as- a.90% of crew resources have been utilized b. 60% of crew resources have been utilized c. Depends on Pilot expertise d. Availability of resources Combinations of answers is correct 45.Myopia is- a. Nearsightedness b. Farsightedness 46.NDB signal transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is a. omni-directional b. Bi-lobar pattern c. Cardiod balanced at 30HZ freq. 47.Physiological gases are a. O2 and CO2 b. O2 and CO , Two more combinations were given 48.Ice on the aircraft surfaces will increase the landing distance by a. 40-50% b. 30-40% c.10-15% 49.Stress management is 50.With respect to CO which of the following statements is correct- a. it has 5 Times affinity to attach with hemoglobin than oxygen b. It causes Hypoxia 51.100% oxygen corresponds to the FL of a. 10000 b. 40000 52. Cognitive Stress is- 53. On a 5 dot indicator, an a/c is flying at a range of 100Nm on a airway. How many dots will correspond to the deviation? a.1.5 dots b.2 dots c.3 dots 54.A pilot experiences bends in joints after the Flight, a. Seek Aviation Medical Assistance immediately b. Ignore as it will get better with time 55.Tidal Volume is- Answer is 500ML 56. To prevent Vertigo- Avoid rapid head movement during the turns 57. A ( 004N 30W ) aircraft flies 600 NM south then 600 NM east, 600 NM north, 600 NM west. Aircraft's present position is? 58. When acknowledging mode and code pulse from ATC,pilot will reply by a. Repeating both mode and code pulse b. repeat only code pulse 59.Variation is applied at beacon on VOR and at A/C for NDB. 60.FL 150 , TAS=250 Kts , OAT= --12Degree Icing will occur- a. Over flat terrain,away from fronts,moderate to severe Mixed Ice b. Pushed by clouds against the mountains,moderate to severe Mixed Ice c. Moderate to severe Rime Ice 61.A/C magnetic hdg is 120, variation= 17W track is 15 degree to the left of HDG. NDB bears (given in question) ,What will be the NDB bearing to plot on a Polar stereo graphic chart? 62.A/C is going from A (QNH 1012HPa) to B (QNH 1012Hpa), the altimeter reading differs.What could be the possible reason for this? a. Aircraft is flying over a warmer airmass b. Flying over a colder airmass c. Altimeter error 63. Dew Point and Air temperature are less than 1 Degree apart, what kind of weather will occur as a result a. Fog and Stratus b. clear sky 64. CU and CB are formed due to a. Convection b. radiation 65. Fog is a.<1000 mts visibilty due to solid and ice particles b. <1000 mts visibility due to solid and liquid particles c.< = 1000 mts due to ice and .......... particles d. < 1000 due to presence of precipitation 66.Geostrophic winds are proportional to a. density if air b. curvature of isobars 66.Average height of Stratosphere is a. 11 to 50 KM b. 50 to 85 KM 67.When is the coldest time of the day. 30 minutes after sunrise Regs: DGCA stuff, squawk code, type of transponder, class 'B' VFR above 10,000MSL etc. Met Find height of tropopause from charts Lapse rate questions A/C flying south in southern hemi with stbd drift, which pressure is it flying into? What is pressure alt? when are pressure alt n density alt same? Human Performance Stress Rate of alcohol consumption in body Middle and inner ear related questions Eye questions including fovea and rods Nav Diagrams of AH and you have to identify the one with the given condition Altimeter numerical flying from A to B, speed 0.84M. Distance 300nm, you have to increase your ETA by 2min, when will you decrease your speed? Previous ETA was given Speed/Time problems Gyro Local time numerical Tech AOA questions --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- First few questions were of Air Regulation: . Height and radius of VFR in congested Areas . Fl to be flown in case of unlawful interference . Fl to be flown, True Heading was given along with variation and deviation, but what flight, VFR or IFR wasn't given. . Steady green light when a/c is on ground . Series of red lights when a/c is in flight . Two questions were there on the radio failure in IFR. Meteorology . Conditions in front of Stationary Front . Chart was given with Isobars and fronts along with TAF clearly showing features of cold front, had identify the station Human Performance . Two questions on stress a . What behavior is not good in team work . Alcohol is filtered by which organ Navigation . What is the Chart length between 180E and 180W on same lat . . Chart length was given on 59 lat, what is the chart length on some other lat . Three Alternates were given with the course and the wind component, which alternate is close in terms of time . A to B distance was given and wind component, what is the total time between A to B and then back to A. . What is the GS and Heading, Course and Wind component were given . QNH of ground is 1023 and elevation is 1500, how much you have to climb for FL 750 . In Mercator chart RL is a straight or curved line ? . What is the Drift on **lat? . What is the distance when an A/C descends 15000ft at the rate of 1500ft/min . Radio Altimeter turns Analog to Circular at - a. below 1000ft, b. at or below 1000ft, c. at DH. . One Altimeter is calibrated for Inst./Pos. error and other 1 is not, what happens is IAS changes . Power of NDB is 100KW what is the range? Technical . Increase in altitude but Angle of Attack, mass and IAS remains same, what happens to the Angle of Climb . With Increase in altitude what happens to the TAS and Drag time &rel velocities hysterisis error combination of what all site errors adf has topple of DGI at pole topple/wander of DGI at somewhere else on earth where does the wing mounted compass send its signals..amplifier/dgi etc 1 question on taf with a miniature map asking you to identify the airport it applies to CDMVT 2-3 q bearing 2-3 q.. NDB bearing & qdm etc given what does attitude indicator indicate after straight level flight 180 deg turn... load factor in a turn stall speed stall angle VMU speed ...direction ....new latitude of place Lambert's departure cp pnr Eustachian tube stress REM sleep ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Q1. When an altimeter is used for SSR it is always referenced to: A) 1013.25 hPa B) The pressure setting in use C) QFE D) QNH Q2. If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and another altimeter which is not, and all other factors being equal: A) there will be no difference between them if air the data computer is functioning normally. B) At high speed the non compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude. C) at high speed, the non compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude. D) ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR. Q3. VLO is defined as: A) Minimum possible speed that the aircraft could lift off the ground B) The maximum speed for landing gear operation C) The long range cruise speed D) Actual speed that the aircraft lifts off the ground Q4. The rate of climb: A) Is the downhill component of the true airspeed B) Is angle of climb times true airspeed C) Is the horizontal component of the true airspeed D) Is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100 Q5.. For a single engine class B aeroplane, V2 may not be less than: A) not applicable B) 1.15Vs C) 1.2Vs D) 1.5Vs Q6. Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1: A) Is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed) B) Is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off C) Is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface D) Is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off Q7. The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on: A) the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane B) the radius of the turn and the bank angle C) the bank angle only D) the true airspeed and the bank angle Q8. Given the following: True Course: 315° Wind velocity: 230/40 TAS: 420 knots What is the wind correction angle and the groundspeed? (WCA / GS) A) -6° / 415 B) +6° / 425 C) +6° / 415 D) -6° / 425 Q9. How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75? Given: Departure aerodrome elevation = 1500 ft QNH = 1023 hPa Temperature = ISA 1 hPa = 30 ft A) 7800 ft B) 6300 ft C) 6600 ft D) 6000 ft Q10. The measured course 042° T The variation in the area is 6° W and the wind is calm The deviation is 4° W In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a compass heading of: A) 044° B) 058° C) 040° D) 052° Q11. Linear acceleration can give a false impression of a: A) climb. B) turn. C) descent. D) spin. Q12. Which of the following statements, if any, are correct? Euphoria is a possible result of hypoxia Euphoria can lead to degraded decisions in flight A) Neither. B) 1 & 2. C) 1 only. D) 2 only. Q13. Clear ice is most often experienced, when the outside temperature is: A) 0° to minus 20° C. B) Minus 5° to minus 10° . C) 0° to minus 5° C. D) Minus 5° to plus 5° Q14. FL 80, an OAT +06° C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL 130, if you consider the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere? A) -6° C B) 0° C C) +2° C D) -4° C Q15. FL 160, an OAT -22° C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL 90, if you consider the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere? A) -4° C B) +4° C C) 0° C D) -8° C Q16. An approximate equation for calculation conversion angle is: A) CA=dlong x sin Lat. x sin Long. B) CA=0,5 x dlat x sin Lat. C) CA=(dlong-dlat) x 0,5. D) CA=0,5 x dlong x sin lat. Q17. Using an NDB it is possible to experience which of the following errors or limitations? A) Night effect, station interference and latitude error. B) Coastal refraction, timing error and lack of a failure warning system. C) Coastal refraction, timing error and night effect. D) Night effect, station interference and lack of a failure warning system. Q18. On an EHSI display, wind velocity can be displayed in which of the following modes? A) Map, Plan, Full ILS and Full VOR. B) Expanded ILS, Expanded VOR, Plan and Full ILS. C) Plan, Full ILS, Expanded VOR and Full VOR. D) Map, Expanded ILS, Full ILS and Full VOR. Q19. Radio altitude is shown on the EADI and changes from a digital display to a circular scale: A) below 1000 ft AGL. B) at 1000 ft and below AGL. C) at 2500 ft. D) at DH. Q20. If the needle and the ball of a Turn & Slip indicator both show left, what does it indicate: A) turn to left & too much bank. B) turn to right & too little bank. C) turn to left & too little bank. D) turn to right & too much bank. Q21. Following 180° stabilized turn with a constant attitude and bank, the artificial horizon indicates: A) too high pitch up and too high banking. B) attitude and banking correct. C) too high pitch-up and correct banking. D) too high pitch-up and too low banking. Q22. The speed VLO is defined as: A) the speed at which the aircraft leaves the ground, not more than V2 and not less than VR B) the maximum speed for extending or retracting the landing gear C) the minimum speed in the landing configuration with one engine inoperative at which it is possible to maintain control of the aeroplane within defined limits whilst applying varying power D) the stall speed in the landing configuration Q23. Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting: A) decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb B) improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY C) improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX D) decreases rate of climb and increase angle of climb Q24. Given true track 352° , variation 11° W, deviation -5° and drift 10° S the required compass heading isSIMILAR) A) 347° B) 005° C) 358° D) 018° Q24. What is the advantage of the remote indicating compass (slaved gyro compass) over the direct reading magnetic compass? A) It senses the earths magnetic field rather than seeks it, so is more sensitive. B) It is connected to a source of electrical power and so is more accurate. C) It is lighter. D) It is not affected by aircraft deviation. Q25. From position A (04° N 030° W) an aircraft flies 600 NM due south, then 600 NM due east, the 600 NM due north, then 600 NM due west. What is the aircrafts final position in relation to A? A) Overhead A. B) Due east of A. C) Due west of A. D) Due south of A. Q26. On the 27th of February, at 52° S and 040° E, the sunrise is at 0243 UTC. On the same day, at 52° S and 035° W, the sunrise is at: (SIMILAR) A) 0243 UTC. B) 0523 UTC. C) 0743 UTC. D) 2143 UTC. Q27. The great circle track X - Y measured at x is 319° , and Y 325° Consider the following statementsSIMILAR) A) Northern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 322° . B) Northern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 313° . C) Southern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 331° . D) Southern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 322° . Q28. On a typical computer generated SSR display the following data on a particular flight will be shown: A) Squawk code, Flight level , True heading, Airplane callsign. B) Destination, Flight level , Ground speed, Airplane callsign. C) Squawk code, Magnetic heading , Ground speed, Airplane callsign. D) Squawk code, Flight level , Ground speed, Airplane callsign. Q29. A DME transponder does not respond to pulses received from radars other than DME because: A) DME only responds to the strongest 100 interrogators. B) DME transmits and receives on different frequencies. C) it will only accept the unique twin DME pulses. D) each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate. Q30. An aircraft DME interrogator transmits pair of pulses for limited periods at switch on. The transmission pattern is: (similar) A) 15000 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 27 pps. B) 270 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 150 pps until lock on, then 25-30 pps. C) 27000 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 30 pps. D) 150 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 27 pps. Q31. An aircraft heading 325° (M) has an ADF reading of 330° Relative. The heading to steer to intercept the 280° track inbound to the NDB at 50° is: A) 340(M) B) 330(M) C) 310(M) D) 320(M) Q32. The maximum VHF range when flying at FL100 would beSIMILAR) A) 120 nm B) 100 nm C) 85 nm D) 12 nm Q33. An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The aircraft is assumed to: A) Land at the destination aerodrome. B) Return to the aerodrome of departure. C) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. D) Land at the alternate aerodrome. Q34. The procedure for an aircraft that suffers communications failure during an IFR flight in visual met conditions, should: A) Proceed direct to its destination. B) Maintain at last cleared level and speed for 20 minutes and then continue in accordance with the flight plan. C) Carry out instrument approach at the nearest airfield. D) Land at the nearest suitable airfield. Q35. An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is assumed to: A) Continue the flight to destination aerodrome in any case. B) Leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace. C) Squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodrome. D) Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report its arrival. Q36. Q.When acknowledging mode and code, pilot needs to: a. Acknowledge code only b. Acknowledge both code and mode Q37. Q. What does series of green flashes indicate when on ground? Q38. Q.Lift and drag depend on a. Pressure distribution of wing aerofoil section b. cambered airfoil Q39. While turning the aircraft the pilot moves his/her head. What effect might the pilot be exposed to. a) Coriolis Force Q40. Decompression is caused by: c) Nitrogen coming out of solution Q41. The Retina b) Receives light, through electrical reactions, converts it into electrical signals. Q42. Hyperventilation is likely to occur as a result of: B) the body attempting to compensate for a drop in partial oxygen pressure. Q43. Generally a healthy person can compensate for the lack of oxygen with altitude upto: 10,000-12,000 feet. Q44. Which gas diffuses from the blood to the lungs during external respiration? Carbon Dioxide Q45. Which illusion does linear acceleration cause? Climbing 46. 100% Oxygen without direct pressure onto the face can be used up to: 40,000 feet Q47. When being affected by Flicker Effect, the pilot should Turn off the strobe lights Q49. With pulse rate of 72 beats a minute and a stroke volume of 70ml. what is the cardiac output. 5 litres a minute Q50. A person suffering from Glaucoma will have Increased pressure of the eye Q51. Decompression sickness symptoms can occur Following loss of cabin pressure at altitudes higher than 18,000 feet Q52. The effect of carbon monoxide: Increases with altitude Q53. Clear Ice forms at temp: Near Freezing Q54. A passenger complains of an inflated stomach at 8,000 feet. What action would you advised the passenger to take: 1. Unbuckle the seat belt and rub the stomach. 2. Avoid eating foods with fermentation qualities and or carbonated drinks. 3. Stand up and expel gases from the intestine. 4. Drink large amounts of water. 1,2,3 is correct 4 is false. Q55. The metabolism of alcohol is affected by time Q56.Hyperventilation can after a long period of time lead to unconsciousness due to. low partial pressure of oxygen to the brain Q57. The time of useful consciousness (TUC) following loss of cabin pressurization at 35,000 feet is. 30-60sec Q58Under normal conditions which gas diffuses from the blood to the alveoli. Carbon dioxide Q59. Should a pilot fly with a bad cold he/she could suffer from: Sinus Pain Q60. Above what height night vision can start to reduce? 5,000 feet Q61. You suffer pain in an ear on a descent should you: Level off and, if necessary climb to the level where it first occurred. Q62. Q. An aircraft is flying over sea.FL 100.True altitude 10000ft.local QNH 1003. What can you say about the airmass over which the aircraft is flying: a. It is warmer than ISA b. It is colder than ISA c. Its average temperature is same as that of ISA d.The information is not sufficient Q63. Q.What kind of precipitation is from clouds found in middle latitudes: a. Drizzle b.Hail c. Heavy rain with large droplets d. Medium rain with large droplets Q64. Q.What does series of red flashes from ATC mean for aircraft in flight? airport unsafe to land Q65. Q.When excessive carbon dioxide has been removed , the blood a. becomes alkaline attaching more oxygen to haemoglobin at lungs b. becomes acidic Q66. Eustachian tube is to: a. equalise pressue between middle ear and external atmosphere b. equalise pressure between sinuses and external atmosphere Q67. Apparent wander at 45 degrees north Q68. Rhumb line on direct Mercator: a. Straight line b. Convex to nearer pole Q69. Arousal: a. Body preparedness for a difficult task b.High level of arousal means high vigilance c. All of the above Q70.Time taken for body to adjust to circadian rhythm if flight time exceeds 24 hrs:IS 1-1.5 HR TIME CHANGE THEN 1 DAY a. 1-1.5 hrs per day Q. True track 358 Var 4 deg east. Flight level chosen will be: a. FL 75 b. FL 80 c. FL 65 d. FL 70 Q71. Initial phase of lock on Aircraft to DME, the Aircraft's transmits at what pulses. Q. In fever below 35 deg C. a) mental disorders, coma b) shivering tends to cease, apathy Q72. Hysteresis error of altimeter is due to. Q. In an unaccelerated flight weight = Q. At 18,000 partial oxygen pressure is 1/2 of what at Sea level. what statement justifies it. a) Oxygen 1/2 of what it is at sea level b) blood is 50% saturated with oxygen Q73. What is random error, choose from the following example. a) A shooter mistakenly shoots from the gun b) A shooter shoots 1 in away from the target c) Pilot put wrong info in the FMS d) Q74. Movement of air masses in the warm front. Q. Heading indicator will stop rotating in the vertical plane at. A) Equator b) 45deg Lat c) 30deg Lat d) Poles Q75. At medium lat Coriolis force experienced: a) 7.5deg to right b) 15deg to left c) 7.5 deg to the left d) 10.5 deg to the right Q76. Range of NDB at 10 kw a) 500nm b) 100nm c) 1000nm d) 50nm |
Few more
increase in flaps will cause v2 to increase, decrease or remain unchanged.
is max cruise thrust greater, lesser or equal to max continous thrust how does change in altitude affect specific fuel consumption(sfc) - increase, decrease, remains constant. what is the best air:fuel ratio by weight for jet engines at which point or region of a jet engine is the pressure at its highest For a given aerofoil, the AOA which results in a stall: (a) remains constant regardless of bank, load or TAS (b) varies directly with the degree of bank (c) varies with the speed of airflow around aerofoil The stall speed of an aircraft will increase with: (a) decrease in the load factor (b) increase in the pitch attitude for straight and level (c) increase in the all up weight of the aircraft The three axis of an aircraft intersect at the: (a) centre of pressure (b) centre of gravity (c) midpoint of the datum line When approaching the stall, the separation point (a) always stays in the same position (b) moves rearward (c) moves towards the transition point The primary function of the rudder, while entering a turn from straight-and-level flight, is to: (a) overcome yaw caused by lowered aileron on higher wing (b) overcome yaw caused by lowered aileron on lower wing (c) overcome yaw caused by raised aileron on higher wing An aircraft is in a state of equilibrium in: (a) a steady rate 1 turn (b) in a steady climb (c) during take off Adverse aileron yaw is reduced by the use of: (a) vortex generators (b) frise type ailerons (c) boundary layer fences Flying near high ground or mountains with winds in excess of 15km, you can expect strong turbulence and down draughts. What would you do to avoid damaging the aircraft and / or loosing control? (a) maintain your heading and speed (b) slow down to manoeuvring speed (c) slow down to manoeuvring speed and fly upwind of ridge On a cold, clear, humid night with a light wind, radiation fog will form. What might form when the wind picks up to 15kts? (a) dew (b) frost (c) stratus Which clouds are the least likely to produce airframe icing? (a) middle cloud (b) high cloud (c) vertical development cloud Nav-inst-radio 1.accuracy of DME 2.radio altimeter measures ?? a)true altitude b)true height c)2 more irrelevant opns.. {thr were 2 same ques} 3.if u r 210 NM away frm DME, y wont u get the indication? 4.on SSR whr is transponer nd interrogator? 5.VSI operates coz of difference in a)static b)dynamic c)total 6.LSS in troposphere? 7.VSI blocked during descent 8.2 ques on acceleration/deceleration error 9.one ques on turning error 10. RIC ques 11.speed of sound depends on? 12.circumference of earth 13.circumference at 60N 14.ques to calculate radius of cone of confusion 15.if u travel at some speed on circumference of equator at some tym...hw much speed u shud travel at 60 deg lat to travel at same tym. speed at equator was given 16. R/T ques 1.readability 5 means? 2.phrase monitor 3.phrase go ahead 4.some basic radio call MET 1.height of high clouds 2.high clouds are a.cirroform b.cumuliform two more optons i dnt rem 3.sfc temp +10 deg C dew point temp +15 deg C.. wt will b the base of cloud?(ans 2000 feet) 4.2 ques related to subsidence lost comm alot of CG ques Vfe rate of turn/radius of turn -------------------------------THE END----------------------------------- |
greetings
hey nice work buddy!!
great help here!! |
I'll Add a few more..
best luck guys ... 1. Double white cross on runway means. 2. Aircraft overtaking the other means a. Angle of 80 with Symmetry axis b. Angle of 70 with symmetry axis 3. Transponder to be set to what mode and code during radio comm failure. 4. When passing through transition layer, what will u report – (when in altitude and when in levels) 5. IFR obstacle clearances of normal areas and mountainous areas. 6. U want to do IFR flight in a controlled airspace, and don’t want advisory service, - do u need to file flight plan etc. 7. In an un accelerated level flight, the weight of the aircraft acts through. a. C.P b. C.G ETC 8. The weight of an Aircraft on ground acts: a. C.P b. C.G. 9. If the total moments of the arms are positive, then the reference is: a. Nose of A/C b. Centerline of wheels. 10. Exchange of oxygen from blood to cells and co2 from cells to blood is known as: a. Internal resperation. b. External respiration 11. Lazzie farie effect is a result of: a. Lack of communication b. Inverstion of authority. 12. Anderson model 13. During IMC, which sense should one believe: a. Visusal sense, to interpret the attitude indicator, b. Seats of the pants sense. c. Vestibular sense. 14. Couple of question relating to the 12*root*Flight level formula. 15. A question on VHF range. 16. VOR co-ordinates given. Variation at VOR given. A/C co-ordinates given and variation at A/C given. On which radial is the aircraft. 17. Light gun signal or flashing green to a/c on ground. 18. Due to winds you have drifted away 3 NM to the left of course after 30 NM of 120 NM. Find correction angle to come back to track. 19. G.C A-B is 100. Lat is given. Find R.L A-B. 20. What is a compass swing done for. 21. Error between compass north and magnetic north is known as. 22. The magnetic pole goes around the true pole of the earth. How much time does is take for one such going around. 23. Auditory nerve is connected to: a. Cochlea b. Semi-circular canals- c. Oliths d. Cortex. 24. Question on given METAR of VIDP. 25. Cold air flowing over warm land: a. Cumulous, poor vis. b. Stratiform, good visbility, c. Stratiform , poor visibility. 26. Liters of blood pumped by heart in a min ? (72 bpm, 70ml per beat.) 27. Frequency of HF to be halved or doubled during night. |
Thanks brother, really appreciate your help
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Why study when you can just cheat... Awesome. Reason 1 why I never fly Indian Airlines.
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Guys please remember that these questions are just a collection from previous
IndiGo exams . Its not an official or unofficial question bank and there are no garuntees that these questions will be asked for the Indigo exams. These questions are just to help you put your knowledge to the test . Please make sure your theoretical fundamentals are strong :ok: @PCLCREW Nobody is cheating here bud . This is just a collection of questions that students experienced during the previous exams This is just to help the those who are appearing for the test to put their knowledge to practice . There are no garuntees that any of these questions will appear for future attempts The pass rates for the IndiGo exams vary from 10%-50% This question bank is akin to asking someone " Hey what questions did you get for the written exam ? " If you think this is cheating.... WHat do you think about the official FAA question banks that are publicly available ? Some 121 carriers even use the same questions from the FAA question bank for their written exams :eek: |
Well said cyrilroy21..
Being prepared is not cheating.. and I believe anyone who is taking the Indigo Test is aware of the fact that these questions just guide you on what "pattern" to "expect" @PCLCREW - Thank you for not flying with Indian Airlines.. :rolleyes: |
2.I understand and will comply with the message- a.Roger ( Answer) b. Wilco |
No No thank you for always ever expanding the reasons why I dont... Thanks again.
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People start contributing atleast a 10 question per post and it will help all....before all hungry ones start moaning about send me please send me there send me here....
If some of you want to appreciate the work and time given by few decent pilots who tried best to help others then kindly contribute 10 questions for their devotion and show them your sincere regards. |
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