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HIGH-FLYER
PleasePleasePleasePleasePleasePleasePleasePleasePleasePlease PleasePleasePleasePleasePlease can I have a copy too! I have failed Perf twice now and have come so close but are really worried! I would love you forever!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Thanks!!!!!!!!!
[email protected]
PleasePleasePleasePleasePleasePleasePleasePleasePleasePlease PleasePleasePleasePleasePlease can I have a copy too! I have failed Perf twice now and have come so close but are really worried! I would love you forever!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Thanks!!!!!!!!!
[email protected]
Join Date: Aug 1998
Location: USA
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I am taking the UK Human Performance/Limitations and Air Law shortly and have little time to waste since this is the last sitting. Any information on what to expect would be deeply appreciated. Thanks
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High Flyer........As I mentioned, I would really appreciate the questions but you say you have 29 of the 37 questions from may? I was under the impression from taking them before that there were about 70-80 questions?
Just a querey.
[This message has been edited by Trainee pilot (edited 21 May 2001).]
Just a querey.
[This message has been edited by Trainee pilot (edited 21 May 2001).]
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I too would be most greatful if you could email be with the list as well, mine are likely to be the round after june. Also all those who take them in june again would be greatful if you could send a copy to me
[email protected]
Thanks
------------------
The approach looked good, the landing was F****** awful.
[email protected]
Thanks
------------------
The approach looked good, the landing was F****** awful.
Guest
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To all those who requested the questions, here they are. Sorry they have not been emailed as promised but i haven't enough time to get each of the email addresses from the forum!!
Hope they come out ok on the site.
Best of luck.
Performance Feedback – May 2001
1. The correct equation is:
a. VMU < VMCA <V1
b. VS < VMCA < V2min
c. Vr < VMCA < VLOF
d. V2min < VMCA < VMU
2. In a constant Mach number climb, how does True Airspeed vary?
a. Increases
b. Decresases
c. Remains Constant
d. Increases then decreases
3. An aircraft is scheduled for take-off, and requires 600m (TODR) under normal conditions. The following airfield characteristics need to be taken into account. Adjust the TODR accordingly:
Pressure altitude 2000ft
QNH 1013
Runway slope 2% : ± 25m / 1% slope
Tailwind component 5 kts : ± 15m / 1kt
Temperature 15°C : ± 15m / 1° ISA Deviation
a. 755m
b. 740m
c. 700m
d. 650m
4. A light piston twin climbs at a gradient of 10% from the screen height of 15m (50’
. There is an obstacle 900m high, 32800m from the screen. By how much does the aircraft clear the obstacle?
a. 100m
b. 115m
c. 85m
d. it does not clear the obstacle
5. If the aircraft mass increases, how does the (i) rate of climb, and (ii) rate of climb speed change?
a. (i) increase (ii) increase
b. (i) decrease (ii) decrease
c. (i) increase (ii) decrease
d. (i) decrease (ii) increase
6. If an aircraft commander elects to land with flap 25 instead of the normal procedure of landing with flap 35, what change in landing performance can be expected?
a. LDR increases, go-around performance improved
b. LDR increases, go-around performance degraded
c. LDR decreases, go-around performance degraded
d. LDR decreases, go-around performance improved
7. How does the long range cruise speed change:
a. LRC Mach Number decreases with decreasing altitude
b. LRC Mach number decreases with increasing altitude
c. LRC Indicated airspeed increases with increasing altitude
d. LRC True airspeed decreases with increasing altitude
8. Using graph 4.28 in CAP698, for an aircraft and aerodrome of the following characteristics, determine the Landing Distance Required to satisfy the regulations:
Field Length limited weight : 50,000 kg
Aerodrome Pressure altitude : 2000’
Anti-skid inoperative
Flap : select optimum position from graph
Runway condition : dry, paved, level
Wind : 15kt tailwind
a. 3100m
b. 2900m
c. 2700m
d. 2600m
9. During certification testing of a two-engine jet aircraft, the true take-off distances were found to be :
1547m with all power units operating
1720m with the critical engine inoperative at V1
The distance used for certification purposes would be:
a. 1547m
b. 1978m
c. 1720m
d. 1779m
10. During a driftdown following engine failure, what would be the correct procedure to follow?
a. Begin fuel jettison immediately, commensurate with having required reserves at destination
b. Do not commence fuel jettison until enroute obstacles have been cleared
c. Descend in the approach configuration
d. Disregard the flight manual and descend at Vs +10kts to the destination
11. If the aircraft takes off at the wet V1 instead of the dry V1, what is the effect on (i) TODR (ii) Climb performance?
a. (i) TODR increases (ii) Climb performance improved
b. (i) TODR increases (ii) Climb performance degraded
c. (i) TODR decreases (ii) Climb performance degraded
d. (i) TODR decreases (ii) Climb performance improved
12. Can take-off be scheduled if V1 < VMCG?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Only if VMCG is decreased to equal V1
d. ??
13. What is the speed V2?
a. the take-off safety speed
b. the speed that is attained in the fourth segment
c. the speed above which directional control can be maintained in the event of engine failure during the take-off run
14. The landing distance required will be decreased as a result of:
a. low aircraft mass, high air density, uphill runway slope
b. low aircraft mass, lower air density, uphill runway slope
c. higher aircraft mass, higher air density, downhill runway slope
d. higher aircraft, higher air density, uphill runway slope
15. Which of the following statements is true regarding the increased V2 procedure?
a. the take off mass can only be increased by increasing the V2 speed if the field length mass limit is less than the climb limit
b. Increasing the V2 speed has the effect of increasing the TODR and increasing the climb gradient for a given TOM
c. The take off mass can always be increased by increasing the V2 speed
d. The TOM can always be increased by increasing the V2
16. Which of the following is not affected by a wind component on take-off
a. climb limited TOM
b. obstacle limited TOM
c. field length limited TOM
d. ??
17. The tangent from the origin to the power required curve for a jet aircraft gives:
a. the max endurance speed
b. the max range speed
c. the Vimd
d. the long range cruise speed
18. At the intersections of the power available and power required curves:
a. unaccelerated level flight
b. accelerating climbing flight
c. steady climbing flight
d. accelerating level flight
19. The TODA is:
a. declared runway length only
b. declared runway length plus clearway
c. declared runway length plus stopway
d. declared runway length plus clearway and stopway
20. How does an increase in aircraft mass affect the gliding range?
a. increases range
b. decreases range
c. has no effect on range
d. ??
21. If fuel consumption equals nm/kg, which of the following statements is correct?
a. forward C of G increases fuel consumption
b. forward C of G reduces fuel consumption
c. C of G has no effect
d. Aft C of G reduces fuel consumption
22. What are the minimum and maximum values of V1?
a. Vmcg, Vr
b. Vs, V2
c. Vmca, V3
d. Vmcg, Vs
23. Which of the following statements is true regarding the performance of an aeroplane in level flight?
a. the maximum level flight speed will be obtained when the power required equals the maximum power available from the engine
b. the minimum level flight speed will be obtained when the power required equals the maximum power available from the engine
c. the maximum level flight speed will be obtained when the power required equals the minimum power available from the engine
d. the maximum level flight speed will be obtained when the power required equals the power available from the engine
24. Pressure altitude is:
a. the altitude above sea level
b. the altimeter indication when QFE is set on the sub-scale
c. the altimeter indication when QNH is set on the sub-scale
d. the altimeter indication when 1013.25 Hpa is set on the sub-scale
25. You are the commander of a light twin piston aircraft. The aircraft performance has been calculated, but before departure another passenger is taken on board. What will be the effect of the extra passenger on board?
a. no effect
b. the performance will be degraded, the performance calculations should be performed again
c. the performance will be improved
d. ??
26. When does the first segment end?
a. when gear retraction is complete
b. when flap retraction is complete
c. at 1500’ above aerodrome level
d. at 400’ above aerodrome level
27. When climbing at a constant Mach number in the troposphere, what the the effect on (i) IAS and (ii) TAS
a. remains constant, decreases
b. increases, decreases
c. decreases, increases
d. decreases, remains constant
28. Can a stopway be used in take-off calculations?
a. yes
b. no
c. only if the clearway is shorter than the stopway
d. ??
29. What is the effect of increased weight on (i) ROC and (ii) ROC speed
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hope they come out ok on the site.
Best of luck.
Performance Feedback – May 2001
1. The correct equation is:
a. VMU < VMCA <V1
b. VS < VMCA < V2min
c. Vr < VMCA < VLOF
d. V2min < VMCA < VMU
2. In a constant Mach number climb, how does True Airspeed vary?
a. Increases
b. Decresases
c. Remains Constant
d. Increases then decreases
3. An aircraft is scheduled for take-off, and requires 600m (TODR) under normal conditions. The following airfield characteristics need to be taken into account. Adjust the TODR accordingly:
Pressure altitude 2000ft
QNH 1013
Runway slope 2% : ± 25m / 1% slope
Tailwind component 5 kts : ± 15m / 1kt
Temperature 15°C : ± 15m / 1° ISA Deviation
a. 755m
b. 740m
c. 700m
d. 650m
4. A light piston twin climbs at a gradient of 10% from the screen height of 15m (50’
. There is an obstacle 900m high, 32800m from the screen. By how much does the aircraft clear the obstacle?a. 100m
b. 115m
c. 85m
d. it does not clear the obstacle
5. If the aircraft mass increases, how does the (i) rate of climb, and (ii) rate of climb speed change?
a. (i) increase (ii) increase
b. (i) decrease (ii) decrease
c. (i) increase (ii) decrease
d. (i) decrease (ii) increase
6. If an aircraft commander elects to land with flap 25 instead of the normal procedure of landing with flap 35, what change in landing performance can be expected?
a. LDR increases, go-around performance improved
b. LDR increases, go-around performance degraded
c. LDR decreases, go-around performance degraded
d. LDR decreases, go-around performance improved
7. How does the long range cruise speed change:
a. LRC Mach Number decreases with decreasing altitude
b. LRC Mach number decreases with increasing altitude
c. LRC Indicated airspeed increases with increasing altitude
d. LRC True airspeed decreases with increasing altitude
8. Using graph 4.28 in CAP698, for an aircraft and aerodrome of the following characteristics, determine the Landing Distance Required to satisfy the regulations:
Field Length limited weight : 50,000 kg
Aerodrome Pressure altitude : 2000’
Anti-skid inoperative
Flap : select optimum position from graph
Runway condition : dry, paved, level
Wind : 15kt tailwind
a. 3100m
b. 2900m
c. 2700m
d. 2600m
9. During certification testing of a two-engine jet aircraft, the true take-off distances were found to be :
1547m with all power units operating
1720m with the critical engine inoperative at V1
The distance used for certification purposes would be:
a. 1547m
b. 1978m
c. 1720m
d. 1779m
10. During a driftdown following engine failure, what would be the correct procedure to follow?
a. Begin fuel jettison immediately, commensurate with having required reserves at destination
b. Do not commence fuel jettison until enroute obstacles have been cleared
c. Descend in the approach configuration
d. Disregard the flight manual and descend at Vs +10kts to the destination
11. If the aircraft takes off at the wet V1 instead of the dry V1, what is the effect on (i) TODR (ii) Climb performance?
a. (i) TODR increases (ii) Climb performance improved
b. (i) TODR increases (ii) Climb performance degraded
c. (i) TODR decreases (ii) Climb performance degraded
d. (i) TODR decreases (ii) Climb performance improved
12. Can take-off be scheduled if V1 < VMCG?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Only if VMCG is decreased to equal V1
d. ??
13. What is the speed V2?
a. the take-off safety speed
b. the speed that is attained in the fourth segment
c. the speed above which directional control can be maintained in the event of engine failure during the take-off run
14. The landing distance required will be decreased as a result of:
a. low aircraft mass, high air density, uphill runway slope
b. low aircraft mass, lower air density, uphill runway slope
c. higher aircraft mass, higher air density, downhill runway slope
d. higher aircraft, higher air density, uphill runway slope
15. Which of the following statements is true regarding the increased V2 procedure?
a. the take off mass can only be increased by increasing the V2 speed if the field length mass limit is less than the climb limit
b. Increasing the V2 speed has the effect of increasing the TODR and increasing the climb gradient for a given TOM
c. The take off mass can always be increased by increasing the V2 speed
d. The TOM can always be increased by increasing the V2
16. Which of the following is not affected by a wind component on take-off
a. climb limited TOM
b. obstacle limited TOM
c. field length limited TOM
d. ??
17. The tangent from the origin to the power required curve for a jet aircraft gives:
a. the max endurance speed
b. the max range speed
c. the Vimd
d. the long range cruise speed
18. At the intersections of the power available and power required curves:
a. unaccelerated level flight
b. accelerating climbing flight
c. steady climbing flight
d. accelerating level flight
19. The TODA is:
a. declared runway length only
b. declared runway length plus clearway
c. declared runway length plus stopway
d. declared runway length plus clearway and stopway
20. How does an increase in aircraft mass affect the gliding range?
a. increases range
b. decreases range
c. has no effect on range
d. ??
21. If fuel consumption equals nm/kg, which of the following statements is correct?
a. forward C of G increases fuel consumption
b. forward C of G reduces fuel consumption
c. C of G has no effect
d. Aft C of G reduces fuel consumption
22. What are the minimum and maximum values of V1?
a. Vmcg, Vr
b. Vs, V2
c. Vmca, V3
d. Vmcg, Vs
23. Which of the following statements is true regarding the performance of an aeroplane in level flight?
a. the maximum level flight speed will be obtained when the power required equals the maximum power available from the engine
b. the minimum level flight speed will be obtained when the power required equals the maximum power available from the engine
c. the maximum level flight speed will be obtained when the power required equals the minimum power available from the engine
d. the maximum level flight speed will be obtained when the power required equals the power available from the engine
24. Pressure altitude is:
a. the altitude above sea level
b. the altimeter indication when QFE is set on the sub-scale
c. the altimeter indication when QNH is set on the sub-scale
d. the altimeter indication when 1013.25 Hpa is set on the sub-scale
25. You are the commander of a light twin piston aircraft. The aircraft performance has been calculated, but before departure another passenger is taken on board. What will be the effect of the extra passenger on board?
a. no effect
b. the performance will be degraded, the performance calculations should be performed again
c. the performance will be improved
d. ??
26. When does the first segment end?
a. when gear retraction is complete
b. when flap retraction is complete
c. at 1500’ above aerodrome level
d. at 400’ above aerodrome level
27. When climbing at a constant Mach number in the troposphere, what the the effect on (i) IAS and (ii) TAS
a. remains constant, decreases
b. increases, decreases
c. decreases, increases
d. decreases, remains constant
28. Can a stopway be used in take-off calculations?
a. yes
b. no
c. only if the clearway is shorter than the stopway
d. ??
29. What is the effect of increased weight on (i) ROC and (ii) ROC speed
a.
b.
c.
d.
Guest
Posts: n/a
They genuinely are the questions from May. Immediately after the exam, i went and spilled the contents of my brain onto a tape in order that i would remember them.
Hope they are of some help in your preparations. Don't look forward too much to the second set of exams, they appear a tad more boring than the first!!
high-flyer
Hope they are of some help in your preparations. Don't look forward too much to the second set of exams, they appear a tad more boring than the first!!
high-flyer