Principals of Flight and Performance
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Principles of Flight and Performance
If anybody could please help me out with some questions / feedback for the above subjects I would greatly appreciate it.
If at all possible, I will try and return the favour.
Cheers guys
If at all possible, I will try and return the favour.
Cheers guys
Last edited by Just another student; 21st Sep 2003 at 02:07.
TightYorksherMan
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Not sure about PoF but the feedback king has some for performance - its the Oxford feedback if you dont have it. I would like it back.
How do you spell Principals???
How do you spell Principals???
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QUALITY FEEDBACK
WHERE ARE YOU DOING YOUR GROUNDSCHOOL?
GOOD FEEDBACK FOR POF IS VITAL!
I GOT 840 QUESTIONS FROM AN EX OXFORD STUDENT, IF YOU GET THEM YOU'LL PASS, IF YOU DON'T YOU'RE A GENIUS IF YOU PASS.
IT IS BASICALLY THE QUESTION BANK!
FOR PERF I BOUGHT THE OXFORD FEEDBACK (150 Q'S I THINK) WITH ANOTHER GUY (£75 EACH). MONEY WELL SPENT SEEING AS IT'S £50 A RESIT+ACCOMODATION!
I GOT BOTH AT 2nd ATTEMPT USING THIS.
I WAS A BRISTOL STUDENT WHERE PERF FEEDBACK WAS PRETTY GOOD BUT POF FEEDBACK WASN'T!
GOOD LUCK!
GOOD FEEDBACK FOR POF IS VITAL!
I GOT 840 QUESTIONS FROM AN EX OXFORD STUDENT, IF YOU GET THEM YOU'LL PASS, IF YOU DON'T YOU'RE A GENIUS IF YOU PASS.
IT IS BASICALLY THE QUESTION BANK!
FOR PERF I BOUGHT THE OXFORD FEEDBACK (150 Q'S I THINK) WITH ANOTHER GUY (£75 EACH). MONEY WELL SPENT SEEING AS IT'S £50 A RESIT+ACCOMODATION!
I GOT BOTH AT 2nd ATTEMPT USING THIS.
I WAS A BRISTOL STUDENT WHERE PERF FEEDBACK WAS PRETTY GOOD BUT POF FEEDBACK WASN'T!
GOOD LUCK!
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Try these. One or two may be a bit amgiguous but that's true of pretty well every JAR exam.
1. Given the following data calculate the maximum allowable take-off mass for the aircraft in a 5 kt headwind?
LIMIT 5 FLAP 15 FLAP 25 FLAP
Field limited TOM 66000 Kg 69500 Kg 71500 Kg
Climb limited TOM 73300 Kg 68900 Kg 65600 Kg
Wind corrections: +120 Kg/Kt headwind -360 Kg/Kt tailwind
a. 66600 Kg.
b. 70100 Kg.
c. 72100 Kg.
d. 68900 Kg.
2. How do VX and VY compare?
a. Vx is always greater than or equal to VY.
b. VX is always less than VY.
c. VY is always greater than or equal to VX.
d. VY is always less than VX.
3. The reduced thrust take-off procedure?
a. Improves engine life.
b. Cannot be used in low ambient temperatures.
c. Requires at least 10 Kts headwind component.
d. Can be used if TOM is greater than performance limited TOM.
4. VS will not be decreased by?
a. Increasing flap angle.
b. Decreasing weight.
c. Increasing altitude.
d. Moving the C of G aft within the allowable range.
5. The TOD at ISA msl on a flat hard dry runway with no wind is calculated to be 800m. What would it be in the following conditions?
Assume + or – 20m/1000 ft elevation, + 10m/Kt tailwind, + or – 5m/10C ISA deviation and the standard slope adjustments.
2000 ft airfield Elevation. QNH = 1013.25 mb.
210C ambient temperature. Dry hard runway.
5 Kts tailwind. 2% upslope.
a. 832m.
b. 954m.
c. 1034m.
d. 1195m.
6. How can the climb limited TOM be increased?
a. Reduce V2.
b. Reduce VR.
c. Reduce V1.
d. Reduce flap angle and increase V2.
7. Which of the following approximates to VMD for a turbojet aircraft?
a. 1.32 VS.
b. 1.35 VS.
c. 1.5 VS.
d. 1.6 VS.
8. A jet aircraft is climbing at Vx and constant powers setting. If speed is increased while power setting held constant?
a. Climb gradient and ROC will increase.
b. Gradient and ROC will decrease.
c. Gradient will increase and ROC will decrease.
d. Gradient will decrease and ROC will increase.
9. An aircraft is gliding at its best range glide speed. If angle of attack is decreased?
a. Glide speed will decrease.
b. Glide endurance will increase.
c. Glide range will decrease.
d. Glide range will increase.
10. How do IAS and drag vary as a flight progresses for a jet aircraft flying at its maximum range cruise speed?
a. Increase, Increase.
b. Increase, Decrease.
c. Decrease, Decrease.
d. Decrease, Increase.
11. What is the tyre speed limit?
a. Max VLOF in ground speed.
b. Max V1 in TAS.
c. Max V1 in ground speed.
d. Max VLOF in TAS.
12. The long range cruise speed for a jet aircraft gives?
a. 1% increase in TAS.
b. 1% increase in IAS.
c. 1% increase in ground speed.
d. 99% of maximum cruise range with an increase in IAS.
13. An aircraft is gliding at its best range glide speed. If angle of attack is increased?
a. Glide speed and range will decrease.
b. Glide speed and endurance will increase.
c. Glide speed will decrease and range will increase.
d. Glide speed will increase and range will decrease.
14. When descending at constant mach number IAS…… and the margin to low speed buffet ………?
a. Increases, Increases.
b. Increases, Decreases.
c. Decreases, Decreases.
d. Decreases, Increases.
15. A jet aircraft is climbing at Vx and constant powers setting. If speed is reduced while power setting held constant?
a. Climb gradient and ROC will increase.
b. Gradient and ROC will decrease.
c. Gradient will increase and ROC will decrease.
d. Gradient will decrease and ROC will increase.
16. The distance available for a jet aircraft planning to land on a wet runway?
a. Must be at least 15% greater than the dry landing distance.
b. May be less than 15% greater than the dry landing distance, provided such data is included in the flight manual.
c. May be less than 15% greater than the dry landing distance, provided the airport authority gives approval for the landing.
d. May be less than 15% greater than the dry landing distance provided the operating company gives approval for the landing.
17. Maximum endurance may be achieved by?
a. Carrying out a steady climb followed by a steady descent.
b. Flying at the absolute ceiling for as long as possible.
c. Flying at constant altitude and constant speed using minimum fuel flow.
d. Flying at VMRC in straight and level flight.
18. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Best range speed is lower than best endurance speed.
b. Best prop range speed is equal to best glide range speed.
c. Best range speed and best endurance speed are the same thing.
d. Best glide speed is approximately 1.32 VMD.
19. Which of the following balance thrust in a steady climb?
a. Weight.
b. Drag.
c. W sin Gamma.
d. Drag + W sin Gamma.
20. How will variations in C of G position within authorised limits affect the fuel consumption in terms of ANM/Kg?
a. Forward movement will increase ANM/Kg.
b. Forward movement will decrease ANM/Kg.
c. There is no relationship between C of G position and ANM/Kg.
d. Rearward movement will decrease ANM/Kg
21. In order to achieve maximum glide range an aircraft must be flown at?
a. VIMP.
b. VIMD.
c. VX.
d. VY.
22. If a pilot elects to land with 35 flap instead of 25 flap the field limited landing mass will……. and the climb limited landing mass will………?
a. Increase, increase.
b. Increase, decrease.
c. Decrease, decreases.
d. Decrease, increase.
23. Which of the following statements is true of two identical aircraft of different masses when descending at idle power setting at any given angle of attack?
a. The heavier aircraft will have a greater forward and greater vertical speed than the light aircraft.
b. The heavier aircraft will have a lower forward speed but greater vertical speed than the light aircraft.
c. The lighter aircraft will have a lower vertical speed but greater forward speed than the heavier aircraft.
d. The lighter aircraft will have a greater forward speed but a lower vertical speed than the heavier aircraft.
24. To maintain a lower speed greater than VS, when flying at the back of the drag curve?
a. More flap is required.
b. Less thrust is required.
c. Less flap is required.
d. More thrust is required.
25. Which of the following conditions might cause V2 to be limited by VMCA?
a. High ambient pressures.
b. Low ambient temperatures.
c. High flap setting.
d. All of the above.
26. What happens to the descent angle as an aircraft descends from FL370 to FL250 at constant Mach number then from FL250 to FL 100 at constant CAS?
a. Increase, increase.
b. Increase, constant.
c. Decrease, decrease.
d. Decrease, constant.
27. How is SFC affected by C of G movement?
a. SFC is not affected by C of G position.
b. Forward movement increases SFC.
c. Rearward movement increases SFC.
d. Rearward movement decreases SFC.
28. If a pilot elects to land with 35 flap instead of 25 flap the landing distance will……. And the go-around performance will………?
a. Increase, increase.
b. Increase, decrease.
c. Decrease, decreases.
d. Decrease, increase.
29. When carrying out certification test flying to establish VMCG, why is nose-wheel steering considered to be inoperative?
a. Because nose-wheel steering is ineffective after VR.
b. Because nose-wheel steering would not be used in the event of an engine failure during the take-of run.
c. Because VMCG must be valid for both dry and wet runway conditions.
d. Because aircraft may be operated with defective nose-wheel steering.
30. What would be the obstacle clearance in a 5% gradient take-of climb given the following data?
Obstacle height 160m above the airfield elevation.
Obstacle 5000m from the screen.
Screen height 50 ft.
a. 90m.
b. 105m.
c. 200m.
d. 250m.
31. How will increasing take-off weight affect the minimum value for V1?
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. No affect.
d. Increase it by the same percentage as the weight increase.
32. The maximum attainable climb gradient of an aircraft under ISA msl conditions is 6%. What will it be under the following conditions?
1000 ft pressure altitude.
170C ambient temperature.
Engine and wing anti-icing on.
Allow: 0.2% for engine anti-icing, 0.1% for wing anti-icing, 0.2%/1000 ft pressure altitude, 0.1%/10C ISA deviation.
a. 3.8%.
b. 4.5%.
c. 5.1%.
d. 5.4%.
33. For the MRJT1 aircraft descending at maximum range speed?
a. CAS increases.
b. IAS increases.
c. Mach number increases.
d. Mach number decreases.
34. Which of the following is true of the situation where V1 is calculated to be less than VMCG?
a. VMCG must be increased to equal V1.
b. V1 must be increased to VMCG but TOD will then be greater than ASD.
c. V1 must be increased to VMCG but ASD will then be greater than TOD.
d. Take-off will not be permitted.
35. What is the maximum field limited TOM for the MRJT1 aircraft using 5 or 15 flap under the following conditions?
-100C OAT, Level dry runway, Zero wind, 7000m Pressure altitude, 2400m length available.
a. 45000 kg.
b. 46000 Kg.
c. 56000 Kg.
d. 59000 Kg.
36. What is the maximum mass at which an aircraft can achieve a 2.4% climb gradient if it is capable of achieving a 2.6% gradient at a mass of 110000 Kg, if atmospheric conditions are constant?
a. 100500 Kg.
b. 119167 Kg.
c. 135506 Kg.
d. 121509 Kg.
37. If the effects of compressibility are ignored, haw would CL vary as altitude increases when climbing at constant CAS?
a. Decrease.
b. Increase.
c. Remain constant.
d. Decrease then increase at higher altitudes.
38. Where does the second segment of the NFP start for a turbojet aircraft?
a. When flaps are fully retracted.
b. When flaps are selected up.
c. When landing gear is fully retracted.
d. When landing gear is selected up.
39. Two identical aircraft are flying at the same speed at the same altitude and have the same SFC. If aircraft 1 has a mass of 130000 Kg and a gross fuel flow of 4300 Kg/hour, what is the gross fuel flow of aircraft 2 if the mass is 115000 Kg?
a. 3364 Kg.
b. 3650 Kg.
c. 3530 Kg.
d. 3804 Kg.
40. When climbing to cruising altitude a headwind will cause?
a. Increased climb time.
b. Decreased climb time.
c. Decreased ground distance covered in the climb.
d. Increased ground distance covered in the climb.
41. With respect to the optimum cruise altitude, commercial aircraft are flown?
a. At optimum altitude at all times.
b. At optimum altitude throughout cruise flight.
c. At optimum altitude whenever ATC instructions permit.
d. Within 2000 ft above or below optimum throughout cruise flight.
42. For a turbo-jet aircraft using 10 flaps the FLTOM = 4950 Kg and the Climb limited TOM = 5359 Kg. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Use of 5 flap will increase both FLTOM and climb limited TOM.
b. Use of 5 flap may increase FLTOM but decrease climb limited TOM.
c. Use of 15 flap may increase both FLTOM and climb limited TOM.
d. Use of 15 flap may increase FLTOM but will decrease climb limited TOM.
1. d
2. c
3. a
4. c
5. c
6. d
7. d
8. d
9. c
10. c
11. a
12. d
13. a
14. a
15. b
16. b
17. c
18. b
19. d
20. c
21. c
22. c
23. a
24. d
25. d
26. b
27. a
28. c
29. c
30. b
31. a
32. c
33. d
34. c
35. c
36. b
37. c
38. c
39. d
40. c
41. c
42. d
1. Given the following data calculate the maximum allowable take-off mass for the aircraft in a 5 kt headwind?
LIMIT 5 FLAP 15 FLAP 25 FLAP
Field limited TOM 66000 Kg 69500 Kg 71500 Kg
Climb limited TOM 73300 Kg 68900 Kg 65600 Kg
Wind corrections: +120 Kg/Kt headwind -360 Kg/Kt tailwind
a. 66600 Kg.
b. 70100 Kg.
c. 72100 Kg.
d. 68900 Kg.
2. How do VX and VY compare?
a. Vx is always greater than or equal to VY.
b. VX is always less than VY.
c. VY is always greater than or equal to VX.
d. VY is always less than VX.
3. The reduced thrust take-off procedure?
a. Improves engine life.
b. Cannot be used in low ambient temperatures.
c. Requires at least 10 Kts headwind component.
d. Can be used if TOM is greater than performance limited TOM.
4. VS will not be decreased by?
a. Increasing flap angle.
b. Decreasing weight.
c. Increasing altitude.
d. Moving the C of G aft within the allowable range.
5. The TOD at ISA msl on a flat hard dry runway with no wind is calculated to be 800m. What would it be in the following conditions?
Assume + or – 20m/1000 ft elevation, + 10m/Kt tailwind, + or – 5m/10C ISA deviation and the standard slope adjustments.
2000 ft airfield Elevation. QNH = 1013.25 mb.
210C ambient temperature. Dry hard runway.
5 Kts tailwind. 2% upslope.
a. 832m.
b. 954m.
c. 1034m.
d. 1195m.
6. How can the climb limited TOM be increased?
a. Reduce V2.
b. Reduce VR.
c. Reduce V1.
d. Reduce flap angle and increase V2.
7. Which of the following approximates to VMD for a turbojet aircraft?
a. 1.32 VS.
b. 1.35 VS.
c. 1.5 VS.
d. 1.6 VS.
8. A jet aircraft is climbing at Vx and constant powers setting. If speed is increased while power setting held constant?
a. Climb gradient and ROC will increase.
b. Gradient and ROC will decrease.
c. Gradient will increase and ROC will decrease.
d. Gradient will decrease and ROC will increase.
9. An aircraft is gliding at its best range glide speed. If angle of attack is decreased?
a. Glide speed will decrease.
b. Glide endurance will increase.
c. Glide range will decrease.
d. Glide range will increase.
10. How do IAS and drag vary as a flight progresses for a jet aircraft flying at its maximum range cruise speed?
a. Increase, Increase.
b. Increase, Decrease.
c. Decrease, Decrease.
d. Decrease, Increase.
11. What is the tyre speed limit?
a. Max VLOF in ground speed.
b. Max V1 in TAS.
c. Max V1 in ground speed.
d. Max VLOF in TAS.
12. The long range cruise speed for a jet aircraft gives?
a. 1% increase in TAS.
b. 1% increase in IAS.
c. 1% increase in ground speed.
d. 99% of maximum cruise range with an increase in IAS.
13. An aircraft is gliding at its best range glide speed. If angle of attack is increased?
a. Glide speed and range will decrease.
b. Glide speed and endurance will increase.
c. Glide speed will decrease and range will increase.
d. Glide speed will increase and range will decrease.
14. When descending at constant mach number IAS…… and the margin to low speed buffet ………?
a. Increases, Increases.
b. Increases, Decreases.
c. Decreases, Decreases.
d. Decreases, Increases.
15. A jet aircraft is climbing at Vx and constant powers setting. If speed is reduced while power setting held constant?
a. Climb gradient and ROC will increase.
b. Gradient and ROC will decrease.
c. Gradient will increase and ROC will decrease.
d. Gradient will decrease and ROC will increase.
16. The distance available for a jet aircraft planning to land on a wet runway?
a. Must be at least 15% greater than the dry landing distance.
b. May be less than 15% greater than the dry landing distance, provided such data is included in the flight manual.
c. May be less than 15% greater than the dry landing distance, provided the airport authority gives approval for the landing.
d. May be less than 15% greater than the dry landing distance provided the operating company gives approval for the landing.
17. Maximum endurance may be achieved by?
a. Carrying out a steady climb followed by a steady descent.
b. Flying at the absolute ceiling for as long as possible.
c. Flying at constant altitude and constant speed using minimum fuel flow.
d. Flying at VMRC in straight and level flight.
18. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Best range speed is lower than best endurance speed.
b. Best prop range speed is equal to best glide range speed.
c. Best range speed and best endurance speed are the same thing.
d. Best glide speed is approximately 1.32 VMD.
19. Which of the following balance thrust in a steady climb?
a. Weight.
b. Drag.
c. W sin Gamma.
d. Drag + W sin Gamma.
20. How will variations in C of G position within authorised limits affect the fuel consumption in terms of ANM/Kg?
a. Forward movement will increase ANM/Kg.
b. Forward movement will decrease ANM/Kg.
c. There is no relationship between C of G position and ANM/Kg.
d. Rearward movement will decrease ANM/Kg
21. In order to achieve maximum glide range an aircraft must be flown at?
a. VIMP.
b. VIMD.
c. VX.
d. VY.
22. If a pilot elects to land with 35 flap instead of 25 flap the field limited landing mass will……. and the climb limited landing mass will………?
a. Increase, increase.
b. Increase, decrease.
c. Decrease, decreases.
d. Decrease, increase.
23. Which of the following statements is true of two identical aircraft of different masses when descending at idle power setting at any given angle of attack?
a. The heavier aircraft will have a greater forward and greater vertical speed than the light aircraft.
b. The heavier aircraft will have a lower forward speed but greater vertical speed than the light aircraft.
c. The lighter aircraft will have a lower vertical speed but greater forward speed than the heavier aircraft.
d. The lighter aircraft will have a greater forward speed but a lower vertical speed than the heavier aircraft.
24. To maintain a lower speed greater than VS, when flying at the back of the drag curve?
a. More flap is required.
b. Less thrust is required.
c. Less flap is required.
d. More thrust is required.
25. Which of the following conditions might cause V2 to be limited by VMCA?
a. High ambient pressures.
b. Low ambient temperatures.
c. High flap setting.
d. All of the above.
26. What happens to the descent angle as an aircraft descends from FL370 to FL250 at constant Mach number then from FL250 to FL 100 at constant CAS?
a. Increase, increase.
b. Increase, constant.
c. Decrease, decrease.
d. Decrease, constant.
27. How is SFC affected by C of G movement?
a. SFC is not affected by C of G position.
b. Forward movement increases SFC.
c. Rearward movement increases SFC.
d. Rearward movement decreases SFC.
28. If a pilot elects to land with 35 flap instead of 25 flap the landing distance will……. And the go-around performance will………?
a. Increase, increase.
b. Increase, decrease.
c. Decrease, decreases.
d. Decrease, increase.
29. When carrying out certification test flying to establish VMCG, why is nose-wheel steering considered to be inoperative?
a. Because nose-wheel steering is ineffective after VR.
b. Because nose-wheel steering would not be used in the event of an engine failure during the take-of run.
c. Because VMCG must be valid for both dry and wet runway conditions.
d. Because aircraft may be operated with defective nose-wheel steering.
30. What would be the obstacle clearance in a 5% gradient take-of climb given the following data?
Obstacle height 160m above the airfield elevation.
Obstacle 5000m from the screen.
Screen height 50 ft.
a. 90m.
b. 105m.
c. 200m.
d. 250m.
31. How will increasing take-off weight affect the minimum value for V1?
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. No affect.
d. Increase it by the same percentage as the weight increase.
32. The maximum attainable climb gradient of an aircraft under ISA msl conditions is 6%. What will it be under the following conditions?
1000 ft pressure altitude.
170C ambient temperature.
Engine and wing anti-icing on.
Allow: 0.2% for engine anti-icing, 0.1% for wing anti-icing, 0.2%/1000 ft pressure altitude, 0.1%/10C ISA deviation.
a. 3.8%.
b. 4.5%.
c. 5.1%.
d. 5.4%.
33. For the MRJT1 aircraft descending at maximum range speed?
a. CAS increases.
b. IAS increases.
c. Mach number increases.
d. Mach number decreases.
34. Which of the following is true of the situation where V1 is calculated to be less than VMCG?
a. VMCG must be increased to equal V1.
b. V1 must be increased to VMCG but TOD will then be greater than ASD.
c. V1 must be increased to VMCG but ASD will then be greater than TOD.
d. Take-off will not be permitted.
35. What is the maximum field limited TOM for the MRJT1 aircraft using 5 or 15 flap under the following conditions?
-100C OAT, Level dry runway, Zero wind, 7000m Pressure altitude, 2400m length available.
a. 45000 kg.
b. 46000 Kg.
c. 56000 Kg.
d. 59000 Kg.
36. What is the maximum mass at which an aircraft can achieve a 2.4% climb gradient if it is capable of achieving a 2.6% gradient at a mass of 110000 Kg, if atmospheric conditions are constant?
a. 100500 Kg.
b. 119167 Kg.
c. 135506 Kg.
d. 121509 Kg.
37. If the effects of compressibility are ignored, haw would CL vary as altitude increases when climbing at constant CAS?
a. Decrease.
b. Increase.
c. Remain constant.
d. Decrease then increase at higher altitudes.
38. Where does the second segment of the NFP start for a turbojet aircraft?
a. When flaps are fully retracted.
b. When flaps are selected up.
c. When landing gear is fully retracted.
d. When landing gear is selected up.
39. Two identical aircraft are flying at the same speed at the same altitude and have the same SFC. If aircraft 1 has a mass of 130000 Kg and a gross fuel flow of 4300 Kg/hour, what is the gross fuel flow of aircraft 2 if the mass is 115000 Kg?
a. 3364 Kg.
b. 3650 Kg.
c. 3530 Kg.
d. 3804 Kg.
40. When climbing to cruising altitude a headwind will cause?
a. Increased climb time.
b. Decreased climb time.
c. Decreased ground distance covered in the climb.
d. Increased ground distance covered in the climb.
41. With respect to the optimum cruise altitude, commercial aircraft are flown?
a. At optimum altitude at all times.
b. At optimum altitude throughout cruise flight.
c. At optimum altitude whenever ATC instructions permit.
d. Within 2000 ft above or below optimum throughout cruise flight.
42. For a turbo-jet aircraft using 10 flaps the FLTOM = 4950 Kg and the Climb limited TOM = 5359 Kg. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Use of 5 flap will increase both FLTOM and climb limited TOM.
b. Use of 5 flap may increase FLTOM but decrease climb limited TOM.
c. Use of 15 flap may increase both FLTOM and climb limited TOM.
d. Use of 15 flap may increase FLTOM but will decrease climb limited TOM.
1. d
2. c
3. a
4. c
5. c
6. d
7. d
8. d
9. c
10. c
11. a
12. d
13. a
14. a
15. b
16. b
17. c
18. b
19. d
20. c
21. c
22. c
23. a
24. d
25. d
26. b
27. a
28. c
29. c
30. b
31. a
32. c
33. d
34. c
35. c
36. b
37. c
38. c
39. d
40. c
41. c
42. d
TightYorksherMan
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I understand the books by keith williams are very good - havent got any myself but have heard along the grapevine (and no he hasnt payed me to say this!!)
Jinkster
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Feedback is vital, but, you must also have a good understanding of PoF to pass this exam. Rather than just learning the answers you must know why that is the answer. I have used Keith Williams Q's & A's. I can say they are very good for this reason, lots of Q's with a good explanation. Thats the vital bit.
D.J.
But my biggest credit go's to Ken Williams at BGS.
D.J.
But my biggest credit go's to Ken Williams at BGS.
Last edited by Dean Johnston; 25th Sep 2003 at 18:55.
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I totally agree Dean, you can not rely on feedback to pass these exams, you also need an understanding of the subject. I have read through the PoF and Perf books (study material) countless times and understand a majority of what is said, but when it comes to answering the questions, that's another story
