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Old 20th Dec 2003, 00:50
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light aircraft & Inland Revenue

can anybody help with some tax advice ?

I am a director of a Limited Company and we are planning to purchase a light twin, and hire it out

in reality I will practically be the only pilot hiring it !! I anticipate that there will be about (only) 3-4 flights per year when the aircraft is hired by other pilots

Does anybody know whether the limited use by other people is enough to prevent the Inland Revenue from treating it as a "benefit in kind " Flying is expensive enough without this added problem !

thanking you in anticipation..
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Old 20th Dec 2003, 01:25
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in reality I will practically be the only pilot hiring it
Don't see why that should be a problem, provided of course that you pay the company a reasonable rate for the hire, such that the company doesn't actually lose money over running the aeroplane. Otherwise you're stuffed, of course; the IR (mostly) aren't stupid.
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Old 20th Dec 2003, 02:39
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Been through that loop, if you run it through the company you work for it is a benefit in kind. The easist way is to have a seperate ltd company run the aircraft and you rent the aircraft from it at a reasonable rate.
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Old 20th Dec 2003, 02:46
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Even if you do as Bose-x suggests you may still find the Ir treat it as "not an arms length transaction" and you could end up with taxationfar in excess of any possible benefit. Seek advice from your corporate accountants. If they do not understand the rules then get a tax lawyer who does. Aircraft in the circumstances you describe may not just a benefit in kind. Just warnings to heed and I cannot in any way offer advice.
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Old 20th Dec 2003, 04:16
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VH,

You haven't given your location, but as you say the "Inland Revenue" I'm assuming you are in the UK. (It is important!)

I'm a professional accountant & tax advisor, but unfortunatly, as I'm based in Ireland, I have little knowledge of the UK system.

Having said that much of the UK tax system is similar to the Irish one, at least in principle. So I'll explain the position as I believe would apply in Ireland.

A benefit in kind is exactly that, a benefit in kind. The important part of this is that you must get a benefit. If you make no personal use of the aircraft, then you do not have a benefit, and therefore do not have a benefit in kind. If you reimburse the company for any personal use, at a rate which you could have hired the airplane from someone else at, then you have received no benefit, and have no BIK.

However I suspect (as will the revenue) that the purpose of this is to subsidise your personal flying, and unless you can prove otherwise, you will have a BIK exposure.

I hope this helps.

Obviously all the usual disclaimers apply! Don't take my advise. You should contact your own professional adviser!

dp (The flying accountant )

ps. If you geneninly need the airplane for business use, and either won't be making any personal use, or will be reimbursing the company for any personal use, and are worried about the BIK, you could consider contacting your inspector of taxes and asking for a ruling in advance.
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Old 20th Dec 2003, 04:27
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Vanhigher

There are several issues with running the a/c using a company, I have several clients (including me!) who do this with a/c ranging from Pitts Specials to Gazelles, and how you set it up depends on a number of factors, such as whether or not there is VAT involved, whether you are going to do lots of expensive work on the a/c, what your plans for the future of the a/c are and who currently owns it.

Personally, I use the route suggested by Bose-x. The company merely operate the a/c with the benefit of a full repairing and insuring obligation. I own it personally. I pay a market rate for the use of the a/c. This I worked out by taking the local flying school rate, and adjusting it for the fact that the company has no capital tied up in the a/c. This avoids any BIK problem.

The company pays everything, including the cost of a rebuild, but apart from a few bits and bobs, owns nothing. It never makes a profit, and is supported by its' directors. (You have to watch the trading whilst insolvent rules)

The company can register for VAT, but you then have to charge yourself VAT, so it's only worth it if you are expecting the VAT recalims to exceed the extra cost to you. You can de register if turnover is below the thresholds, but if you do, the C&E will expect you topay VAT on the assets in teh company, subject to a deminimus, so better to own nothing.

The company pays you an annual lease payment of say £5 for the use of the a/c. You could then run a further arguement with the IR that you are persoanlly trading and generate some capital allownaces loss relief. If you do, and win, please post here!

If you put the a/c in the company the payements to the company for using the a/c will need to reflect the full market rates to avoid a BIK charge. The secondary problem with doing this is the tax position if you ever want to remove the a/c from the company. You might need to think about, either lending the company the money to buy the a/c (any interest it pays you will be taxable on you even though it is your money going round in circles), or subscribing for new shares in teh company to the value of the a/c. The later route makes extracting the a/c later more tax inefficient.


I have started to look to see whether a limited liability partership might not be a better route; when I know, I shall let you know.

If you want anything else, assuming you don't think the forgoing to be a load of bollocks, feels free to pm me.

If you put the a/c into your normal trading company (ie your proper job business) yuo can expect all manner of agro.
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Old 20th Dec 2003, 04:47
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This is a very complex area and even the Inland Revenue sometimes have difficulties getting it right. If you are a "higher paid" (>£8,500 pa) employee or a director of a company and the company makes available to you an asset for your personal use, you will be liable to tax on the corresponding benefit. In this case, the gross benefit would be the aggregate of:

1. 20% of the market value of the aircraft at the date it is first made available; plus

2. any additional expenses (these would include all operating costs disbursed by the company).

The gross benefit would then be reduced by all amounts made good to the company.

The problem is that in most groups, the amounts payable by the members are principally a reimbursement of direct costs (ie item 2 above). This still leaves the potentially significant 20% annual value on which tax will be charged.

As I said, the Inland Revenue themselves find difficulties with this legislation and many groups operate through companies without any problems. However, a word of warning: the Revenue's internal guidance manual on this issue has recently been amended and it is clear that they are taking a much tougher line

And, no, I don't work for the Revenue, I am a tax adviser and I will freely admit that this area of taxation is not my particular specialism.

Aiglon

Ludwig,

I have started to look to see whether a limited liability partership might not be a better route; when I know, I shall let you know.
I have also looked at this and I think there is a problem for group ownership in that an LLP has to be set up for the purposes of "carrying on a lawful business with a view to profit". Most (if not all) groups would generally escape taxation on the basis that any trading activity is mutual. I'm not sure this would work with an LLP - although I am by ne means certain.

Aiglon
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Old 20th Dec 2003, 04:58
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The suggestion that:
you could consider contacting your inspector of taxes and asking for a ruling in advance
is unlikely to prove fruitful in the UK. The tax inspector will always start by saying "I can't give a ruling in advance, it will depend on all the circumstances including ones you haven't thought of to tell me about, what you have to do is do it first, then put in the tax returns, then I'll decide whether to clobber you after the fact".

Sometimes, if you're lucky, you can press them to say something like "well, as an initial guess, without knowing all the circumstances, if you were to do x I might feel inclined to treat it as y, but of course you can't hold me to this". It would be really rather unusual to do any better than this.
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Old 20th Dec 2003, 13:06
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It's a minefield. I had an aircraft that I rented to a flying club via my company. I had 5 years of arseache from the Revenue over it. It was mostly down to a particular inspector who consistently failed to get the facts right in the Revenue's favour. I think the problem only went away because either the inspector retired or upper "management" realised that the horse they were flogging had expired.

My accountant suggested three solutions:
1. Sell the aeroplane
2. Get another pilot into the company so the aeroplane effectively became a "pool" vehicle and not liable to BIK
3. Buy another aeroplane thus creating a "fleet" and losing the BIK applicable to a company vehicle.

Good luck
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Old 20th Dec 2003, 17:12
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LowNSlow,

Your accountant's suggestions are interesting Number 1 I can understand but the others are just plain wrong. The provision of an aircraft is taxable as a benefit under different provisions to those applying to "vehicles".

Aiglon
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Old 20th Dec 2003, 18:03
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For what it's worth, I agree entirely with aiglon.

BIK on cars is totally different from BIK on anything else. Putting other people or things into the equation does not change the poistion necessarily; there is no reason why both partipants could not be taxed on the same BIK!

Still, keeps the fees coming in!
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Old 20th Dec 2003, 18:53
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aiglon & Ludwig I'm glad I use a different accountant now!
I think part of the problem was that the Revenue refused to define the charge other than as a generic "Benefit In Kind"
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Old 21st Dec 2003, 02:39
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Ludwig said
BIK on cars is totally different from BIK on anything else.
I well remember seeing a tax circular a few years ago along the lines of.
"The Inland Revenue have announced the end of the concession under which all of the expenses of keeping a horse for business purposes were allowable for tax puposes. In future horses will be treated in the same way as other means of transport and the costs apportioned according to mileage."

As a general principle BIK is calculated by apportionment.
If you have something which is provided by the company solely for your private use then all of the expenses incurred by the company in providing you with it would be treated as BIK and would be taxable (i.e. treated as income).

If it used used for mixed private and business use then the cost would be apportioned. How the apportionment would be done is arguable. The obvious way would be hours flown as these are records that are legally required to be kept.

If you flew say 10 hours on business out of a total of 60 hrs in the year the IR would allow one sixth of the expenses as a business expense and the remainder would be taxable.

Broadly speaking the IR's aim is to eliminate the tax advantages of "perks". Have a look at the formP11D that your employer has to fill in each year and you will see how they go about it. A true answer in section L is likely to incite some interest from them!

Again, I am not a tax expert.

Mike
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Old 21st Dec 2003, 05:43
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I went through the same argument a few years ago. I got the "rates" for hiring an identical aircraft from the local flying club. Over the year, we paid (in total) very slightly more for the "group" aircraft than we would have paid for the club one.

The point made was that the BIK was zero or negative.

Whether that argument would hold up if used for the first time now, I don't know.

Cars are a specific and different case. The Revenue (or the Chancellor or someone) wanted to stop companies providing cars, so they came out with some very inequitable rules, which not surprisingly killed the Company Car business. Probably also helped the demise of the UK car industry.
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Old 21st Dec 2003, 05:46
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Mike Cross said:

If you flew say 10 hours on business out of a total of 60 hrs in the year the IR would allow one sixth of the expenses as a business expense and the remainder would be taxable.
I don't wish to seem pedantic - although it helps when dealing with tax legislation - but be careful here. The full amount of the benefit will be taxable and you would have to make an expense claim to get a deduction for the business element - the Revenue are unlikely to simply charge you the net amount. The legislation only permits an apportionment where the asset is used partly for the "provision of the benefit and partly to other matters". The Revenue's view is that "other matters" do not include business use by the employee/director. Use by other employees or by the company itself (eg hiring it out to third parties) are "other matters".

By the way, although there is strictly no apportionment, the Revenue do accept that if the asset is available to more than one employee/director, the benefit charge is shared rather than each being charged the full amount. What decent chaps

Aiglon
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Old 22nd Dec 2003, 00:56
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It seems to be a bit of a lottery and down to individual tax inspectors/districts.

A few years ago I met a gentleman whose company had a small aircraft. He used it for business purposes and some pleasure flying. The inspector decided that he would do the apportionment on a daily basis - allowing the days on which he flew for business but charging him for all other days since the aircraft was available to him personally on those days.............

Funnily enough he sold the business, the aircraft and his house - taking his money and talent back to Canada!
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Old 22nd Dec 2003, 01:04
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A professional tax advisor might advise whether this might stand as legitimate or not.
Cheaper is to ask yourself: Does this entire complicated set-up exist solely to pay less tax, such that a simpler structure would have been good enough for the real business to be conducted? If the answer is "yes" you're stuffed.

(Plus don't forget you'd have quite a lot of costs to pay out, including real £100/hour programmers to sort out the messes made by the £10/hour ones whilst your clients are waving writs at you. And if I were called in to fix something in circumstances like that I'd quite likely want more than £100 - the rates always go up for obviously dodgy clients - and want cash up front.)
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Old 22nd Dec 2003, 17:02
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VORTIME great idea, when you have done that, can I have the job of sorting out the resulting Inland Revenue investigation please mucho fees; yummy!
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Old 22nd Dec 2003, 18:03
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I fly @150 hour per annum of which @35 is legit business travel, visiting clients, sales trips etc.

I charge my business a rate per hour for the business use, which I can justify to the revenue ie 1/150th of fixed costs( by which I include annual and scheduled and unscheduled maint) + fuel oil etc. It works out at less than I would have to pay a commercial organisation but the help towards the fixed costs is welcome.

So far the revenue have not passed comment and who's to say whether my trip to Joe client is a pressing need or just cos the suns shinning and I fancy some air time!

I dont rent to anyone else and am a partnership, my partner or other employees often come with me. Works for me!
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Old 22nd Dec 2003, 21:35
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I operate a plane through a limited company. It is used for private and business, and is also rented out to a couple of other pilots.

I did a fair bit of research and this is a summary of what I found out:

The Revenue permits private use of a company asset if the private use is fully reimbursed. How "fully" is calculated is debatable but it needs to stand up to scrutiny. A market rate would be a good start. If you fully reimburse private use, you are not subject to the 20% benefit in kind business, and that AIUI is how syndicates that operate via a ltd co get around that problem; every pilot fully reimburses his usage to the company.

I could not find a problem with owning a plane in the same company which generates your livelihood, other than if there is an incident and the insurance refuses to pay out, your livelihood potentially goes down the pan. So a separate ltd co which operates the plane is a good idea.

The more flights are done by other pilots (i.e. rental) the more commercial the whole thing looks, which helps with both the Revenue and VAT. Obviously if the plane is rented out, you certainly do NOT want it owned by the main business, for obvious liability reasons.

According to recent reports, the Revenue has tried to charge BIK tax on large company assets which are nominally available to Directors to use - whether they are actually used or not. A booking system (i.e. the plane is not available unless previously booked) has been suggested by one of the major UK accountancy firms as a defence against this.

The best advice I can give is to find an accountant who has other clients in a similar situation. With so few GA pilots flying on business that won't be easy.

aiglon

The Revenue's view is that "other matters" do not include business use by the employee/director. Use by other employees or by the company itself (eg hiring it out to third parties) are "other matters".

The above would mean that a plane used solely for business by the sole owner of a business would be subject to BIK tax. That clearly isn't so. You can travel on business any way you choose (so long as it isn't way over the top) and a plane is a perfectly reasonable way to travel. People who have a plane owned by their firm and use it solely for business have the easiest case AFAIK.

Last edited by IO540; 22nd Dec 2003 at 23:31.
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