Question on WW2 night interception
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Question on WW2 night interception
A question has arisen with respect to a wartime incident where a German aircraft may or may not have been granted "safe passage" in UK airspace. In practice, would this have been possible and if so, how would it be done involving as few people as possible? Its also alleged that despite this, it was "nearly shot down". Would a night fighter pilot be expected to ask permission or authorisation to engage an enemy aircraft?
I don't own this space under my name. I should have leased it while I still could
Shot One, if one made a 'safe-passage' flight it is more than likely that it was undetected rather than given safe-passage.
While a night fighter might have been on patrol any uncontrolled intercept would have been a very long-odds event. In other words it is more likely that the fighter would not have been given vectors rather than that is was denied permission to engage.
If, a big if, it was detected by the ground radar then a decision not to intercept would have been a de facto granting of safe-passage.
While a night fighter might have been on patrol any uncontrolled intercept would have been a very long-odds event. In other words it is more likely that the fighter would not have been given vectors rather than that is was denied permission to engage.
If, a big if, it was detected by the ground radar then a decision not to intercept would have been a de facto granting of safe-passage.
