bogie
14th Mar 2001, 22:26
Does anyone out there know where I can purchase the book that has apparently been published listing all the quiz questions that have ever been asked in the Cathay Interview test?
touch&go
14th Mar 2001, 23:03
Try Transair Pilot Shop Tele 01273 466000
Stock No. 1013E @ £23.95
middlepath
15th Mar 2001, 01:35
Dont worry only for the job,Be yourself, that is the key! dont ever be someone when you are not. if you just do these basics, you will always do right. good luck
1. Use of engine anti-ice affects fuel consumption
A) Increases always
B) Increases sometimes
C) Doesn’t change
2. Rate of turn in an aircraft is measured by
A) Rate gyro spinning on horizontal axis
B) Rate gyro spinning on vertical axis
C) Two gyros, one in the horizontal axis, one on the vertical axis
3. 1500’ elevation, QNH 1000 mb, Pressure altitude is
A) 1500’
B) 1890’
C) 1539’
4. For lease trip fuel (ignoring wind effects)
A) Climb at best gradient
B) Climb at best rate
C) Climb at some other speed
5. As weight decreases the indicated Mach number for LRC should
A) Increase
B) Decrease
C) Remain the same
6. As altitude increases the difference between IAS & TAS
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remains the same
7. R/H holding pattern 270 deg inbound – if tracking 180 deg to the fix what entry should you make
A) Sector 1
B) Sector 2
C) Sector 3
8. On a rejected takeoff the order of use to stop is
A) Brakes, Spoilers & reverse thrust
B) Reverse thrust, brakes & spoiler
C) Spoiler, reverse thrust & brakes
D) Take over from the Chinese captain who is praying and then A
E) Take over from the Chinese captain who is praying and then B
F) Take over from the Chinese captain who is praying and then C
G) They would never give you d-g
9. What is Mcrit
A) The speed which Mach tuck occurs
B) The speed which airflow over the wing becomes sonic
C) Vmo
D) The low side of coughing corner
10. The approach gradient requirements takes into account
A) Wind shear
B) LDA
C) Engine failure
D) LDR
E) TORA
11. The reason why Fan Jets are flat rated
A) To keep EGT constant at all speeds
B) To give the widest range of operation of engine keeping it within defined limits
C) To prevent the engine from exceeding RPM limits
D) To prevent the engine from exceeding EPR limits
E) To prevent the engine from exceeding Temperature limits
F) To allow the engine to operate at various OAT
12. When flight planning for a long flight do you take into account oxygen requirements for aircrew and passengers
A) Yes
B) No
C) Only above 25,000’
D) Only above 30,000’
E) Only above 40,000’
13. Does HF radio waves use
A) Tropopause
B) Ground waves
C) Troposphere
D) Ionosphere
E) Stratosphere
F) Line of sight
14. Airspeed is restricted to 250 kts below 10,000’ if windshield anti-icing is off because
A) Strength of glass is diminished for bird strike
B) Prevent windows fogging up
C) Prevent ice ingestion in the engine
15. If an engine failure is recognized AT V1 you should
A) Stop
B) Continue take off
C) Stop or go
16. What does the turbine bypass valve do in the aircraft air-conditioning system
A) Prevent the turbine from stalling at low speeds
B) Anti-ice the water separator
C) Open to warm air-conditioned air into the pax cabin
D) Allows air to be bypassed from the compressor at low RPM to prevent compressor surging
17. Forward CofG increases aircraft stalling speed because
A) Upward moment on the tail plane decreases the wing loading
B) Downward moment on the tail plane decreases the wing loading
C) Downward moment on the tail plane increases the wing loading
D) Upward moment on the tail plane increases the wing loading
18. The critical angle of attack changes with CogG location
A) True
B) False
19. Modern jet aircraft use spoilers for lateral control because
A) Ailerons are too effective at high speed
B) Lack of room on the trailing edge of the wing due to large requirements for high lift devices
C) Aileron reversal will occur due to Mcrit being exceeded
D) Movement of the ailerons will result in the critical mach number being exceeded
E) Ailerons are not effective at low speed
20. Landing performance charts factor tailwind component
A) not factored
B) 0.5
C) 1.15
D) 1.5
21. When taxing a red flashing light directed at the aircraft means
A) Return to starting point
B) Stop
C) Give way to other traffic
D) The control tower is using a laser to see if you are exceeding the speed limit on the taxi way
E) Taxi clear of the runway in use
F) The control tower is using a laser to listen in on the cockpit conversation
G) Another aircraft is nearby
22. Yaw dampener utilizes which control surface
A) Spoiler
B) Aileron
C) Elevator
D) Rudder
23. Aspect ratio is
A) Chord/span
B) Chord x span
C) Span/chord
24. Large ice accumulation
A) Select all engine anti-ice on before engine compressor stalls
B) Select one or two engine anti-ice at a time before selecting others
C) Select engine ignition on, then select all anti-ice systems on
D) Start the APU to power the air-conditioning pack as all bleed air would be used for anti-ice
25. At 32,000’, True OAT –54 deg C, Temperature is therefore closest to ISA
A) -15
B) -10
C) -5
D) 0
E) +5
F) +10
G) +15
26. On landing & wheel brakes applied, the anti-skid can be felt to operate, do you
A) Modulate brakes and re-apply
B) Maintain brake pedal pressure
C) Switch off anti-skid
D) Disarm the autobrakes
27. Brake efficiency is proportional to the temperature of the brakes, which statement is correct ?
A) It is better to cycle brakes on-off
B) Braking can be degraded on a large aircraft after a long taxi
C) The increased temperature improves operation of carbon brakes
28. Normal ICAO holding pattern above FL140 is
A) 1.5 min LH
B) 1.5 min RH
C) 2 min LH
D) 2 min RH
29. Turbine bypass valve is used to
A) Cools the bleed air before it enters the cabin
B) Prevents exhaust gasses from entering the air-conditioning pack
C) Turn the bleed air line off in the event of an overpressure or over temperature condition
D) Bypasses the cooling turbine to warm the cabin air
30. In an aircraft which has parallel generators, what is compared before they are connected
A) Phase and volts only
B) Volts and frequency only
C) Phase and frequency only
D) Phase, volts, and frequency
31. De rating engines effects has what effect on trip fuel
A) Decrease
B) Increase
C) No change
32. A cause/effect of fatigue is
A) Home financial and marital stress
B) The introduction of the D pay scale (they will not give you this)
C) Losing concentration and making more mistakes
D) Drinking and eating many small snacks during flight
33. Aircraft fitted with direct lift control have a pitch change when correcting for a high or low indication on an ILS
A) True
B) False
34. TEMPO conditions are when
A) Weather fluctuations less than 30 mins
B) Weather fluctuations less than 60 mins
C) Weather fluctuations less than 90 mins
D) Weather fluctuations greater than 90 minutes
35. The speed limitations on CAT C aircraft holding is
A) At or below FL120 220 KIAS, 240 KIAS to FL240, 255 KIAS above FL240
B) At or below FL120 230 KIAS, 250 KIAS to FL200, 265 KIAS above FL200
C) At or below FL120 230 KIAS, 240 KIAS to FL200, 265 KIAS above FL200
D) At or below FL140 220 KIAS, 240 KIAS to FL200, 255 KIAS above FL200
E) At or below FL140 230 KIAS, 240 KIAS to FL200, 265 KIAS above FL200
F) At or below FL140 230 KIAS, 250 KIAS to FL200, 275 KIAS above FL200
36. The tau area inside the surveillance area of a TCAS equipped aircraft represents
A) The zone where by TCAS advisors cannot be calculated due to the “cone of silence”
B) The zone where by TCAS advisors cannot be calculated due to the masking of one or more of the aircrafts transponders antennas
C) The zone where by TCAS traffic advisories cannot be generated
D) Represents the minimum time the flight crew needs to discern a collision threat and take evasive action
E) The zone where by TCAS resolution advisors cannot be generated
37. Maximum speed for a Cat C aircraft visual maneuvering is
A) 135
B) 150
C) 180
D) 240
E) 205
F) 265
38. If you encountered wind shear and decided to go-around you would
A) Climb power do not reconfigure
B) Max thrust, gear up, flaps up
C) Max thrust do not reconfigure
D) Max thrust do not reconfigure, max pitch obey stick shaker
39. After gear is selected up the indicated brake temperatures
A) Decrease
B) Increase then decrease
C) Increase
D) Remain the same
40. For an aircraft with a Vat of 120 KIAS the speed range of speeds for initial approach is
A) 120-180
B) 115-160
C) 160-240
D) 141-165
E) 185-250
41. The advantages of the MLS for aircraft are
A) All ILS equipped aircraft have the necessary airborne equipment to utilize it
B) Allows direct navigation from point to point
C) Cheaper to calibrate than an ILS
D) Allows approaches from different tracks and various slopes
42. If Vmcg is limiting how would you increase the aircrafts weight
A) Select lesser flap setting
B) Reduced thrust takeoff
C) Move the center of gravity forward
D) Select a runway with less crosswind
E) Use differential thrust takeoff technique
43. If an aircraft is at 10,000’, ISA –10 deg, what would the altimeter read
A) Correct within +-50’
B) Over read 1100’
C) Under read 1100’
44. For an aircraft with a Vat of 122 KIAS the speed range of speeds for final approach is
A) 120-180
B) 115-160
C) 160-240
D) 141-165
E) 185-250
45. If flying at below optimum level
A) Fuel flow higher, airspeed lower
B) Fuel flow lower, airspeed lower
C) Fuel flow higher, airspeed higher
46. The spherical TCAS surveillance area around and aircraft is approximately
A) 5 nm
B) 7 nm
C) 10 nm
D) 14 nm
E) 15 nm
F) 21 nm
47. Conducting a sector entry into a holding pattern 270 deg inbound right hand, if tracking 180 over the aid the sector entry required would be
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
48. For an aircraft with a Vat of 140 KIAS the speed range of speeds for final approach is
A) 120-180
B) 115-160
C) 160-240
D) 141-165
E) 185-250
49. Can the TCAS II system can provide resolution advisories to
A) The pilot
B) The pilot, and transponder equipped aircraft
C) The pilot, and TCAS equipped aircraft
D) The pilot, and transponder equipped aircraft
E) The pilot, TCAS equipped aircraft, and ground stations
50. ICAO holding speeds
A) 210-6000’, 220- 14000’
B) 230-14,000’
C) 220-14,000’, 240 above
51. Transponder code for radio failure
A) 1200
B) 2000
C) 3000
D) 7600
E) 7700
52. How does TCAS II work
A) Using aircraft weather radar or TCAS traffic indicator and Mode C transponders
B) L band ATCRBS/Mode C reporting transponder
C) Ground based equipment utilizing airborne ACARS transmissions
D) L band ATCRBS/Mode S reporting transponder
53. The TCAS system can handle aircraft densities of
a) 0.1 transponder equipped aircraft per square nautical mile
b) 0.2 transponder equipped aircraft per square nautical mile
c) 0.3 transponder equipped aircraft per square nautical mile
d) 0.4 transponder equipped aircraft per square nautical mile
e) 0.5 transponder equipped aircraft per square nautical mile
54. For an aircraft with a Vat of 135 KIAS the speed range of speeds for initial approach is
A) 120-180
B) 115-160
C) 160-240
D) 141-165
E) 185-250
55. Maximum speed for a Cat C aircraft on the missed approach is
A) 135
B) 150
C) 180
D) 240
E) 205
F) 265