verderol
5th Dec 2008, 18:20
I need some enlighten please.
According to my aerodinamic knowledge the distance you use for take off is less when you use take off flaps than when you use zero flaps.
Now, how can it be posible that after the King air200 raisbeck modification a flapless take off uses 200/300 feet less of RWY to be airborne( according to the performance charts)???
I need the aerodinamic explanation please.! :ugh:
Thank you!!
According to my aerodinamic knowledge the distance you use for take off is less when you use take off flaps than when you use zero flaps.
Now, how can it be posible that after the King air200 raisbeck modification a flapless take off uses 200/300 feet less of RWY to be airborne( according to the performance charts)???
I need the aerodinamic explanation please.! :ugh:
Thank you!!