The capital injection you are referring occurred as new shares issued.
That's my point exactly. He used that capital injection to pay down debt, but is claiming that the paying down of the debt has been a result of normal business. If he was able to pay down debt from normal cashflow then, in the absence of a serious downturn, it would stand to reason that he would be able to continue to pay down similar amounts of debt going forward without having to resort to more capital raising. I won't be holding my breath.