Originally Posted by
Alex Whittingham
PS The airbus IRS does compute sideslip, for example google A310 Flight Instruments, FCOM pages 10, 16 &17, side-slip index (and beta target). With due respect to your theory provider they should know this, and that the 2 year time limit has been asked.
Oh yes, I've had an epiphany while re-reading this message.
The ball will indicate "sideslip" by actually giving you a measure of the lateral acceleration.
The IRS can compute lateral acceleration as well and try to deduce sideslip.
However it is not an optimum measure of sideslip.
Say you are rolling on the runway at 100kt, with a 5kt lateral wind.
The IRS won't notice a thing, if correctly compensated for, but there will be a 3° sideslip (or so)
In flight, I do reckon that there is a lateral force equation. Cy can be deduced from LAT_acceleration=QSCy
The, Beta can be deduced from Cy=Cyβ*β + Cyr*rb/2v +Cyp pb/2v+Cydn*dn
That is not exactly a measure, that is a complex computation :lol:
It would be an estimation based on the aircraft engineering model.
I've noted a few other questions which are typical of why I will do the entirety of my question base :
https://gyazo.com/414b7c0abbded745620a05280c09079a
If you are still at the intercepting heading once you're on the lock, since you can't instantly change your heading to the LOC heading, you will overshoot and be in for a new LOC capture. One should not re-try to intercept it at constant heading..
https://gyazo.com/663edad82a76222433332b5f0b32f91f
This question deserves a plain WTF?
I would definitely write the keyword "inversion" on my exam paper if I could, or even write the answer in plain words, if possible. I'm not sure the computers will allow that.