Which he indicates is a definition arrived at by Boeing (a manufacturer who has derived it from the FAR's etc - even though he has discounted any other manufacturers interpretations of the derivation).
There is no decision at V1, it is go.
This is correct. From the FAR, the decision to stop must be made BEFORE V1, thus V1 is NOT a decision speed, so the first part of below is correct, however his interpretation that:
The decision to stop, and the initial actions to stop must be before V1.
The second part of this is incorrect, as the FAR clearly states states that V1 is the speed achieved AT WHICH the brakes are applied, not the speed reached immediately after.
If Leadies main issue is with V1 being referred to as a "decision" speed, then he is correct, there is no decision at V1, you are committed. However, V1 has to be defined somehow, and I think the FAR is quite explicit, and even the quoted Boeing one is a little vague. If Boeing certificate to the FARs why not just use the FAR one? Surely that is the correct one?