Several large sections of the plane have separated cleanly, which to a layman makes sense only if separation occurred before ground impact, ie the plane falling apart at the seams in the air. This could be confirmed easily by the distance between the fuselage parts.
No evidence of any criminal malfeasance or fire event has yet been publicized - and in fact access to the wreck seems to have been quite free. Shouldn't we use Ockham's razor and assume a local structural failure, cascading into a mid-air breakup, until evidence to the contrary emerges?
Edmund
Last edited by edmundronald; 3rd Nov 2015 at 11:45.