I don't quite understand this. In my days of legacy travel on business the airline did not get the revenue until the ticket was presented at check-in. So with no-shows they lost the revenue, and if they didn't / don't overbook the airline flies an unpaid for seat. Now with Easyjet they get the revenue at booking, do they not ? So they fly a paid for seat. So by overbooking they have resold a seat already paid for ? Having paid for the seat it's yours whether you fly or not ? By selling a seat already paid for is this not borderline or straight forward theft ? I understand Ryanair do not do this ? Happy to be corrected or enlightened on any of that.