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Old 14th Nov 2012, 18:32
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Owain Glyndwr
 
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@FlightpathOBN

Nice pictures, but I asked for an explanation of how the vortices developed using Newtonian arguments.

The aircraft is planing through the air, the weight of the aircraft, with angle of attack of the wings, compresses the airmass to provide level flight. (notice as the aircraft fuel load lightens, the angle of attack to fly level is reduced
So airspeed doesn't come into it?

The A&E paper says:

The key points are that the lift of the wing is proportional to mdot & vv and the induced power is proportional to Lvv. Also, mdot is proportional to the wing's area and speed, and the air density, while vv is proportional to the wing's speed and angle of attack
.


That is mdot (mass flow rate) not air mass, and there is no mention of any air mass being compressed. When we get to details that A&E paper again says:



Thus, a Cessna 172 at cruise is diverting about five times its own weight in air per second to produce lift. A 250-ton jumbo jet in cruise is diverting about its own weight per second.
How do you explain that, and why isn't the Cessna a danger to the jumbo not the other way round?

The wing section is constantly changing, with the leading edge sweep angle, thickness, and width.
So what about an unswept wing, constant chord and t/c? Doesn't that have tip vortices?



The combination of angle upward of the bottom of the wing, and the component airflow direction over the top, causes the rollup,
Why should the angle upward of the bottom of the wing have any effect on the rotational velocity? What causes the "component airflow direction over the top"? Doesn't a change of direction (from freestream) imply some sort of force (Newton's first law)? So where does this force come from in Newtonian logic?




Last edited by Owain Glyndwr; 14th Nov 2012 at 21:08.
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