Just to return to the tax issue ...
My pension was assessed and split following my divorce. Our fine and competent pension providers failed to notify me of the change in pension until some seven months AFTER initiating it. Result - overpayment! Much fairly 'lively' correspondence evetually produced agreement that repayment would be made over approximately three years. The repayment is deducted at source (so I never get my hands on it ) and the remainder is at a level LESS than the tax deducted!!! Never have understood financial matters and have no particular wish to, but I have a feeling that I am being 'shafted'. When the original overpayment was made, that money was taxed at source. The amount being repaid is (as I see it) money that I am NOT RECEIVING. Should one be taxed on money which does not accrue to one???
Puzzled, Norfolk
