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Old 21st September 2010 | 14:04
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Keith.Williams.
 
Joined: Aug 2001
Posts: 775
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From: Dorset
The problem of these two questions both being in the CQB has existed for a number of years. The fact that a known problem has not been correct is not at all unusual.

The correct method is to use:

FF2 = FF1 x W2/W1
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