(The majority of South Africans are black,)
That is possibly so but it is possibly also true to say that a large part of the majority of blacks in South Africa are not South Africans. And that fact alone is a big problem for the ruling party and all its leaders. The original statement though, could better be used with justification as an explanation for the deteriorating national infrastructure and the startling deficiencies in wealth distribution across the newly enfranchised black population rather than as an excuse for quid pro quo rascist policies adopted by the present administration and its rebellious servants.
Retrospecting back to March 17th 1992, what would have been an approriate retroaction?