As a mere SLF can I ask what may seem a very stupid question? And that is what was so different in this case to the Ryanair tail strike at Dublin last year? I seem to recall the captain of the Ryanair flight declaring a mayday after that and
even discussion about leaking hydraulic fluid,what is so different between the two aircraft types that the amount of damage sustained in this event doesn't seem to have involved that sort of issue and was the Ryanair incident and the reaction of the captain an over reaction?
BTW I'm not saying the Ryanair captain did anything wrong-just asking.
I also seem to recall that in the Ryanair case there was even questions about pressurising the airframe after the event,why was that not an issue here?