Originally Posted by
downwindabeam
I'm trying to figure out if it's a true to say that when reducing the thrust with flex temp and then increasing the V1, Vr correspondingly according to bombardier the airplane rotates at exactly the same point as it would taking off with full thrust in terms of percentage used of the runway model used (0kts->Vlof->Abborted TO Stopping point)?
Don't have such tables to hand, but it would seem to be impossible to conduct a takeoff with reduced thrust and get to a faster Vr at the same point on the runway. With less thrust, and hence less acceleration, you'll be further down the runway at the same speed.
Unless there's something sneaky in the way the calcs are accounted for...?