Hi folks,
If we're talking about margins, is it fair to say that a fundemental difference between a "derate" and an "assumed temp" reduction is that with a derate you have no margin, i.e. what you select is what you've got - 20k say. Whereas with an assumed temp reduction, the calculation is inherently conservative, so that if you reduce by say, 20%, the reality is you have a little more in hand.
Could someone remind me why this is so? (in English!!)
Cheers.
Fred.