I've read all the posts in that thread, and those it links to, but I'm still on clear on a few aspects.
First of all, the bulk of the stuff is from 2005, so are the facts still true with respect to current regs?
From what I've read I'm still sketchy on the issue of proving yourself to be self-employed if you are in fact employed virtually exclusively by one FTO. Did a court ruling/test case definitely back up the instructor in this situation, and is this still the situation today?
If I am classed as self-employed, is there a period of time before I can switch to being employed when I can live without dear of being hunted by HMRC for VAT claimed back during training? Circumstances do change and I might be offered an employed position after minimal time as an instructor.