Let's assume the £16m and £21m were like for like? Who pays the difference?
It is really just international number moving.
My aeroplane will cost £1m. I will invoice your government for £1.1m. I will pay you a facilitator's fee of £100k. Your government has an aeroplane costing £1.1m - done deal.
Who pays the bribe? HMG - the tax payer, BAE - the shareholder? Or the country buying the aircraft?
Or did it go:
My aeroplane will cost £1m. I will invoice your government for £1m. I will pay you a facilitator's fee of £100k. Your government has an aeroplane costing £1m and my company has absorbed a £100k - done deal.
Who loses? HMG - the tax payer who refunded the discount to BAE, BAE who reduced the dividend to the shareholder, or the tax man as the discount was tax deductable? Or the country buying the aircraft?