PERF
Just a quick question on performance. I know that ASDR assumes a failure at VEF followed 1 second later by V1. In some old notes I have it says that the first retardation occurs 2 seconds after V1, using brakes on a dry runway and thrust reversers factored in for wet rwy operations. Now in my Boeing Flight crew operating manual it says that the abandoned takeoff must occur at V1 at the very latest. It also says that if windshear is encountered on the takeoff roll just before V1 there may be insufficient runway to stop. So as you can see a slight conflict. I am supposing that the 2 seconds is due only to some extra stringent JAR requirement. I would be grateful if someone could shed some light.