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Old 15th Jun 2005, 21:10
  #16 (permalink)  
morris1
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Believe me, I'm sure..

Dont confuse the dictionary definition with the actual legislation. The paragraph I gave stating what a conveyance is, comes verbatim from the act. It is indeed section 17(7) of the Theft Act 1968.

The legislation itself was indeed brought about by the "loophole" with joyriders having no provable 'intent to permantly deprive'... The legislation makes no mention of "Motor car" whatsoever.

Conveyance is defined by this section and as such includes all vehicles, vessels, aircaft, hovercraft, invalid carraiges etc etc however bicycles are covered by different legislation..

There is no need to prove damage or loss, simply that the Conveyance was "taken", plus of course the requisite lack of consent from the owner !
The taking will amount to any movement, no matter how small, powered or otherwise (however the intent must be to use it AS a conveyance)

If damage was caused to said conveyance then the offence is AGGRAVATED TWOC..

Its a fairly sizeable piece of legislation and too big to deal with on a notice board

However if you still dont believe me, the incident at Sheffield resulted in the offender being arrested, charged and convicted of ........ yes TWOC
full story here
http://www.sheffieldtoday.net/ViewAr...ticleID=291981