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Old 22nd Mar 2005, 18:27
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Alex - as always correct. But the required braking force will of course be lower, since the kinetic energy to be dissipated is lower (M x GS squared).

So unless e.g. aquaplaning is a question, the braking energy required is (M x g x mju) / (M x v squared), which can be reduced to (g x mju) / (v squared).

Therfore - AFAIK - the decrease in braking force is exactly counterbalanced by the reduction in kinetic energy.

However, since we are now dealing with the required braking force, we have made good our ability to dissipate the kinetic enegy of a 53 T aircraft decelerating from the V1 corresponding to 53 T. Our actual mass is only 48 T. So - to my limited knowledge - we are looking at the following formula:

Brake force available for 53 T
------------------------------ = >1,0
Brake force required for 48 T

I doubt that a lawyer will be able to disprove the (classical mechanistic) validity of Newtons laws of motion. BUT - and that is a very big but - if we are looking at a wet runway where aquaplaning is a possibility, there might very well be an issue. I have no idea if assumed temp. is allowed on a wet runway - only starting my 73' course on 4/4 Looking fwd to it - maybe somebody in here could educate me in the mean time ???

Brgds from
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