DS's claim of endangering his family because of clearance refusal in this situation after a flight across a wide expanse of ocean is a patent crock of sh!te.
That (and ERSA) notwithstanding, it is interesting (if it is true) that an IFR clearance would be available whereas VFR was not - when there was apparently no meteorological reason to limit clearance to IFR only. If flight under such conditions is limited just to the "paying IFR pilot/flight" , this has implications for VFR pilots/flights traversing other controlled airspace, if such policies/behaviours become widespread.
Could someone enlighten me as to why VFR flight would not be allowed whereas IFR would be in such a situation (other than the fact that DS is at the yoke)?
Curious, in many respects.
[edited for dyslexic grammar]