Originally Posted by
Tartiflette Fan
I wasn't sure about WW1, so had a quick read up. Given that the war ended in an armistice and not a surrender, that the the aggressor nation was not physically invaded and (imo ) both sides were exhausted ( American influx excluded ) then I would say that is in line with uxb's premise.
Wasn't one of the deciding factors in Germany loosing WW1 the successful naval blockade of food and supplies? Ironically the same tactic Hitler tried in WW2 but failed.