Originally Posted by
etudiant
My point still stands, it seems iffy to sign a free transit agreement with Russia and then later claim that more recent EU rules nullify that.
I suggest you read the relevant documents, but it seems to me that Lithuania etc are acting in accordance with the relevant agreements. Lithuania is after all a sovereign state, and the relevant territory is its territory, and it appears to be acting in accord with the various agreements.
"Since the dissolution of the Soviet Union and the independence of the Baltic states, Kaliningrad Oblast has been separated from the rest of Russia by other countries instead of by other former Soviet republics. Neighboring nations imposed strict border controls when they joined the European Union. All military and civilian land links between the region and the rest of Russia have to pass through members of NATO and the EU. Russian proposals for visa-free travel between the EU and Kaliningrad have so far been rejected by the EU. Travel arrangements, based on the Facilitated Transit Document (FTD) and Facilitated Rail Transit Document (FRTD)[41][42] have been made.[41][42] "
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kaliningrad_Oblast
41 = https://web.archive.org/web/20091101...ingrad-region/ (note you can go the text of one of the documents itself if you follow the footnotes)
42 = https://eur-lex.europa.eu/LexUriServ...08:0008:EN:PDF (not found)
Looking at 41 the explanation seems fair enough to me. If I read correctly, it is only Russian "persons" that get facilitated travel for transit purposes. Goods, no, and never appear to have done. So Lithuania would appear to be entirely acting within the norms in applying sanctions which have been agreed at EU level, but which are being discharged at a national level, to the corresponding prohibited goods that are seeking to transit Lithuanian territory.