Why am I reminded of Hitler’s annexation of the Sudetenland in 1938 and subsequent takeover of all of Czechoslovakia.
Supposedly justified as being to protect the German minority of the population.
Also the US and others have raised the possibility of the Russians faking a trans-border attack supposedly by the Ukraine into Russia to be used as a justification for Russia to invade Ukraine .
Did not Hitler do the exact same thing to “Justify” the Nazi invasion of Poland in 1939?