Etudiant,
I'll bite - why the reference to Russia regarding the death, seems counter-productive to your argument that Russia wasn't involved?
Also, if Skripal was of zero value and not 'broadcasting' what was the point? Hypothetically, let's extrapolate your viewpoint that UK security services were being economical with the truth, to what end?
I also have zero additional information, unless further information surfaces, Occams razor principle appears sound to me