Originally Posted by
barryt
I have some "smoking gun" questions, which nobody seems willing to answer, (or can't properly answer for me), based on proper scientific evidence.
Fundamental Question 1:
Why, on a continent populated almost entirely by poor people, where poverty is rife, most of it...extreme poverty....on a continent...which has little-to-no medical facilities to serve its general populace...on a continent....where it's people have little-to-no medical science appreciation or understanding, and frankly could not care less really, about any sort of "virus" or having to wear a mask, when all they can mostly think of daily, is where their next decent meal is coming from....a continent...such as AFRICA...
After almost ONE FULL YEAR NOW of "virus exposure"....why then, is half of its population not already dead and decimated by the virus?
If one is to believe everything we have been told by medical science, governments and all the rest, about the virulence, contagiousness, and deadliness of the virus, why then, have we not seen Africa's population being at least reduced by HALF, over the last YEAR now?
Nobody either wants to, or can, properly explain this to me, based on scientific fact.
So then, by implication, we must ask a further fundamental question, if we do not have a proper scientific answer to the first:
How about a common sense answer......
Do people in Africa in general go to the shops, drive around in cars, travel by rail, go on holiday by air, use mass transit systems as much as those in the developed world?