V1-Vr split on 4-engine aircraft
Why is there normally a significant split between V1 and Vr on a heavy 4 engine Long haul aircraft. On a 2 engine aircraft the split between V1 and Vr on a dry runway is normally not as significant. I understand it has to do with the fact that you loose 25% of thrust vs 50% of thrust. I just don’t understand the exact reason behind. Can someone explain please. Thank you.