Originally Posted by
WingNut60
You may be correct in this case but your argument is not strictly correct.
For example, under Australian law, it is an offence to engage in a hostile activity in a foreign country, unless serving in or with the armed forces of the government of a foreign country.
Australia also has laws concerning engagement in sex-related crimes in foreign countries, subject to prosecution in Australia.
You are partially right, and let me explain. Many countries have laws prohibiting
their citizens from committing certain acts. A lot of countries have laws on the books to prohibit sexual predator tourism, making it possible to prosecute child abuse in their own countries if committed by a citizen or permanent resident. In those cases, there is an existing relationship between the country and the individual.
In this particular case there is no relationship between the individual and the country, France, other than that the victims were French citizens. What's next? The French prosecuting American citizens who exercise their 1st amendment rights and insult a French citizen?
Each country has their own soevereign laws, and France has no business going outside of that.
Just look, where on this planet the US has arrested "terrorists" and put them in torture camps....
And kept them out of the U.S. to avoid them being subject to the rights afforded to them by the U.S. constitution.
Can't say that I always agree with that either.