Originally Posted by
mrdeux
Didn't think that through, did you?
My apologies if it's simplistic, but could you point out why it's flawed?
Both flights departed from the same airport, close together, heading in identical directions (diverging very late in the flight). If wake turbulence falls over time (as I understand it does), having the trailing aircraft at a higher flight level should prevent the trailing aircraft being upset by the wake turbulence of the lower, leading aircraft (unless, of course, the second aircraft overtakes the first). Where is the logical fallacy? Genuine question.