Indigo Call letters for Freshers
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one question based on constant speed propeller drive motor
function of turbine in a jet engine?
single spool gas turbine engine related question .
human performance
symptoms of stress.
how much sleep does the body need.
what is team spirit mean in cockpit ?
hypoxia symptom
would update soon .
gudluk
function of turbine in a jet engine?
single spool gas turbine engine related question .
human performance
symptoms of stress.
how much sleep does the body need.
what is team spirit mean in cockpit ?
hypoxia symptom
would update soon .
gudluk
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Yes guys as AVL998 mentioned there wer only 5 questions on Human performance n no questions from aerodynamics .. around 10 questions frm Systems - oxygen and pressurization.. some technical quest like Hung Start.
More than 10 quest on regs.
Arnd 10quest on performance
10 quest mass n balnce
10 on nav
10met
10 on operational procedures
10 on Instruments n radio nav
basically all subjects equally but no question where we had to refer to diagrams or charts or graphs
all questions frm JAR QB exactly d same with the same choices...
I ll try to post the exact questions asked asap
More than 10 quest on regs.
Arnd 10quest on performance
10 quest mass n balnce
10 on nav
10met
10 on operational procedures
10 on Instruments n radio nav
basically all subjects equally but no question where we had to refer to diagrams or charts or graphs
all questions frm JAR QB exactly d same with the same choices...
I ll try to post the exact questions asked asap
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hey
guys some more questions that i cud recollect were:
when aircraft cabin uses bleed air in cabin what happens to the aicraft performance?
The passenger oxygen safety equipment is it continous flow or on demand flow?
when aircraft cabin uses bleed air in cabin what happens to the aicraft performance?
The passenger oxygen safety equipment is it continous flow or on demand flow?
Join Date: Jun 2007
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Congrats to all those Candidates that passed the August 1st exam 
http://marketing.caeoaa.com/download...candidates.pdf
Eaxctly 100 Candidates out of the 231 candidates that appeared passed the written
http://marketing.caeoaa.com/download...candidates.pdf
Eaxctly 100 Candidates out of the 231 candidates that appeared passed the written
Last edited by cyrilroy21; 6th Aug 2014 at 10:40.
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Indigo Exam Aug 2014 Quest-1
1. The second freedom of the air is the :
a) right to land for a technical stop
b) right to overfly without landing
c) right to ""cabotage"" traffic, (trans-border traffic).
d) right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two
states.
2. Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to
communicate to the intercepted aircraft ""YOU MAY PROCEED"" ?
a) Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of
flight of the intercepted aircraft.
b) Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.
c) Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.
d) Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.
3. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall
indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:
a) 7500.
b) 7700.
c) 7600.
d) 7000.
4. When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector
furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at
an angle not greater than:
a) 30 degrees.
b) 25 degrees.
c) 15 degrees.
d) 20 degrees.
5. In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar
lights shall be:
a) Fixed lights showing variable white.
b) Flashing lights showing variable white.
c) Fixed lights showing variable green.
d) Flashing lights showing variable green.
6. In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be
supplemented:
a) By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways ""L"" and ""R"" - for 3 ""L"", ""C""
and ""R"".
b) By a number like ""0"" and ""01"" for 2 parallel runways.
c) By a letter for 2 parallel runways.
d) By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways ""L"" and ""R"" and the central has no letter.
7. Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency ?
a) 2430 KHz
b) 121.5 MHz
c) 243.0 MHz
d) 2.182 KHz
8. What does the abbreviation ""HJ"" mean?
a) Sunrise to sunset.
b) Sunset to sunrise.
c) No specific working hours.
d) Continuous day and night service.
9. What does QDR mean?
a) Magnetic bearing from the station
b) Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)
c) True bearing from the station
d) True heading to the station
10. When the term ""Broken"" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR),
the amount of clouds covering the sky is:
a) 5 to 7 octas
b) 1 to 4 octas
c) 8 octas below 10000 feet
d) No clouds below 5000 feet
11. The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following elements/
details:
a) Aircraft call sign, nature of distress, pilot's intention, present position, level and
heading
b) Aircraft call sign, route of flight, destination airport
c) Aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, position and level
d) Aircraft call sign, present position, assistance required
12. An accumulator in a hydraulic system will :
a) store fluid under pressure.
b) increase pressure surges within the system.
c) reduce fluid temperature and pressure.
d) reduce fluid temperature only.
13. Cabin pressure is controlled by :
e) delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin and controlling the
outflow.
a) controlling the flow of air into the cabin with a constant outflow.
b) the cabin air re-circulation system.
c) the cabin air mass flow control inlet valve(s).
OR
The cabin pressure is regulated by the:
f) Outflow valve.
g) Air cycle machine.
h) Air conditioning pack.
i) Cabin inlet airflow valve.
14. If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:
j) decreases
k) increases
l) remains constant
m) may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is
taken.
15. The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to :
n) drive the generator at a constant speed.
o) vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.
p) directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of an engine and a generator.
q) vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.
16. On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type:1. AC
generator over-voltage2. AC generator under-voltage3. over-current4. overspeed5.
under-frequency6. undue vibration of AC generatorsThe combination of
correct statements is :
r) 1,2,4,5
s) 1,2,4,6
t) 1,3,5,6
u) 2,3,4,5,6
17. In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is :
v) the same as turbine rpm.
w) independent of turbine rpm.
x) greater than turbine rpm.
y) less than turbine rpm.
18. A stage in an axial compressor:
z) is made of a rotor disc followed by a row of stator blades
aa) has a compression ratio in the order of 2.1
bb) is made of row of stator blades followed by a rotor disc
cc) has a compression ration in the order of 0.8
19. A ""hung start"" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal idle speed. It
may be caused by:
dd) an attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been accelerated sufficiently
by the starter.
b) compressor surging.
c) the starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before the engine has accelerated to
the required rpm for ignition.
d)failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the engine has been accelerated to
the required rpm by the starter.
20. Using compressor bleed air to power systems:
ee) decreases aircraft performance
ff) has no influence on aircraft performance
gg) increases aircraft performance
hh) is limited to the phases of take-off and landing
For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the speed at which
21. the engine :
ii) will run without any external assistance.
jj) is designed to idle after starting.
kk) operates most efficiently in the cruise..
ll) will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage.
22. In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a slightly higher than normal
oil pressure.This higher pressure :
mm) is normal, if it decreases after startup.
nn) is abnormal and requires the engine to be shut down.
oo) is abnormal but does not require the engine to be shut down.
pp) requires an oil change.
23. A smoke mask is a :
qq) mask with flow on request and covers the whole face.
rr) continuous flow mask and covers the whole face.
ss) mask with flow on request and covers only the nose and the mouth.
tt) continuous flow mask and covers only the nose and the mouth.
24. A class A fire is a fire of:
uu) solid material, generally of organic nature
vv) liquid or liquefiable solid
ww) electrical origin
xx) metal or gas or chemical (special fires)
25. Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
a) the airline complies with the Technical Instructions
b) national aviation administration permission has been granted
c) government permission has been granted
d) no passenger is carried on the same flight
26. Dangerous goods annex - ???
27. If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a
28. descent the instrument will:
a) over-read
b) read zero
c) continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage
d) under-read
29. Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum
30. operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent
31. from a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides
32. to use the maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited :
a) initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level
b) initially by theVMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level
c) by the MMO
d) by the VMO in still air
33. At a constant Mach number, the calibrated air speed (CAS) :
a) decreases when the altitude increases
b) increases when the altitude increases
c) remains unchanged when the outside temperature increases
d) remains unchanged when the outside temperature decreases
34. An Air Data Computer (ADC) :
a) Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo motors in
instruments
b) Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in the event that the static source
is blocked
c) Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the ground in order to provide correct
altitude and speed information
d) Measures position error in the static system and transmits this information to ATC to
provide correct altitude reporting
35. An ""intruding traffic advisory"" is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2
(Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by displaying :
a) a yellow full circle.
b) a blue or white empty lozenge.
c) a blue or white full lozenge.
d) a red full square.
36. If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear retracted) in proximity to terrain
and its GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) get activated, because it is
detecting that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of descent, the system provides
the following aural warning signals :
a) ""SINK RATE, SINK RATE"" followed by ""WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP"" (twice)
b) ""DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK""
c) ""TERRAIN, TERRAIN"" followed by ""WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP"" (twice)
d) ""TOO LOW, TERRAIN"" (twice) followed by ""TOO LOW GEAR"" (twice)
OR
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the following sound
signal or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around :
e) DON'T SINK repetitive only
f) WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP repetitive only
g) DON'T SINK always followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP
h) DON'T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if the sink rate overshoots a second
level
37. Regarding Electronic Instrument System (EFIS) :1- the Navigation Display (ND)
displays Flight Director Bars.2- the altimeter setting is displayed on the PFD
(Primary Flight Display).3- the PFD is the main flying instrument.4- the FMA (Flight
Mode Annunciator) is part of the ND.The combination regrouping all the correct
statements is :
a) 2, 3.
b) 3, 4.
c) 1, 4.
d) 1, 2.
38. The airplane outside air temperature ""probe"" measures the :
a) ""total"" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the
static temperature.
b) ""static"" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the total
temperature.
c) ""total"" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the static
temperature.
d) ""static"" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the total
temperature.
39. The Mach number:
a) is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.
b) is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound at sea level.
c) is the ratio between the IAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.
d) increases at a given TAS, when the temperature rises.
40. When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle
clearance / climb performance:
a) decreases / remains constant.
b) increases / increases.
c) remains constant / remains constant.
d) decreases / decreases.
41. The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered
a) when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms
b) in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kt
c) during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleys
d) near valleys and at the windward side of mountains.
42. What are the meteorological prerequisites, at low level, for thunderstorms formed
by lifting processes, over land?
a) High temperatures, high humidity.
b) High air pressure (> 1013 hPa), high temperatures.
c) Low temperatures, low humidity.
d) Subsidence, inversion.
43. Which of the following statements describes a microburst ?
a) A high speed downburst of air with a generally lower temperature than its
Surroundings
b) A high speed downdraft of air with a higher temperature than its surroundings
c) An extremely strong wind gust associated with a tropical revolving storm
d) A small low pressure system where the wind circulates at high speed
44. Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur
in a CB?
a) Between -2°C and -15°C
b) Between -20°C and -30°C
c) Close to the freezing level
d) Between -30°C and -40°C
45. At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C, according to the tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely
temperature at FL 350 ?
a) -54°C.
b) -50°C.
c) -56,5°C.
d) -58°C.
a) right to land for a technical stop
b) right to overfly without landing
c) right to ""cabotage"" traffic, (trans-border traffic).
d) right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two
states.
2. Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to
communicate to the intercepted aircraft ""YOU MAY PROCEED"" ?
a) Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of
flight of the intercepted aircraft.
b) Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.
c) Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.
d) Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.
3. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall
indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:
a) 7500.
b) 7700.
c) 7600.
d) 7000.
4. When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector
furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at
an angle not greater than:
a) 30 degrees.
b) 25 degrees.
c) 15 degrees.
d) 20 degrees.
5. In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar
lights shall be:
a) Fixed lights showing variable white.
b) Flashing lights showing variable white.
c) Fixed lights showing variable green.
d) Flashing lights showing variable green.
6. In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be
supplemented:
a) By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways ""L"" and ""R"" - for 3 ""L"", ""C""
and ""R"".
b) By a number like ""0"" and ""01"" for 2 parallel runways.
c) By a letter for 2 parallel runways.
d) By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways ""L"" and ""R"" and the central has no letter.
7. Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency ?
a) 2430 KHz
b) 121.5 MHz
c) 243.0 MHz
d) 2.182 KHz
8. What does the abbreviation ""HJ"" mean?
a) Sunrise to sunset.
b) Sunset to sunrise.
c) No specific working hours.
d) Continuous day and night service.
9. What does QDR mean?
a) Magnetic bearing from the station
b) Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)
c) True bearing from the station
d) True heading to the station
10. When the term ""Broken"" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR),
the amount of clouds covering the sky is:
a) 5 to 7 octas
b) 1 to 4 octas
c) 8 octas below 10000 feet
d) No clouds below 5000 feet
11. The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following elements/
details:
a) Aircraft call sign, nature of distress, pilot's intention, present position, level and
heading
b) Aircraft call sign, route of flight, destination airport
c) Aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, position and level
d) Aircraft call sign, present position, assistance required
12. An accumulator in a hydraulic system will :
a) store fluid under pressure.
b) increase pressure surges within the system.
c) reduce fluid temperature and pressure.
d) reduce fluid temperature only.
13. Cabin pressure is controlled by :
e) delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin and controlling the
outflow.
a) controlling the flow of air into the cabin with a constant outflow.
b) the cabin air re-circulation system.
c) the cabin air mass flow control inlet valve(s).
OR
The cabin pressure is regulated by the:
f) Outflow valve.
g) Air cycle machine.
h) Air conditioning pack.
i) Cabin inlet airflow valve.
14. If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:
j) decreases
k) increases
l) remains constant
m) may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is
taken.
15. The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to :
n) drive the generator at a constant speed.
o) vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.
p) directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of an engine and a generator.
q) vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.
16. On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type:1. AC
generator over-voltage2. AC generator under-voltage3. over-current4. overspeed5.
under-frequency6. undue vibration of AC generatorsThe combination of
correct statements is :
r) 1,2,4,5
s) 1,2,4,6
t) 1,3,5,6
u) 2,3,4,5,6
17. In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is :
v) the same as turbine rpm.
w) independent of turbine rpm.
x) greater than turbine rpm.
y) less than turbine rpm.
18. A stage in an axial compressor:
z) is made of a rotor disc followed by a row of stator blades
aa) has a compression ratio in the order of 2.1
bb) is made of row of stator blades followed by a rotor disc
cc) has a compression ration in the order of 0.8
19. A ""hung start"" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal idle speed. It
may be caused by:
dd) an attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been accelerated sufficiently
by the starter.
b) compressor surging.
c) the starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before the engine has accelerated to
the required rpm for ignition.
d)failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the engine has been accelerated to
the required rpm by the starter.
20. Using compressor bleed air to power systems:
ee) decreases aircraft performance
ff) has no influence on aircraft performance
gg) increases aircraft performance
hh) is limited to the phases of take-off and landing
For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the speed at which
21. the engine :
ii) will run without any external assistance.
jj) is designed to idle after starting.
kk) operates most efficiently in the cruise..
ll) will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage.
22. In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a slightly higher than normal
oil pressure.This higher pressure :
mm) is normal, if it decreases after startup.
nn) is abnormal and requires the engine to be shut down.
oo) is abnormal but does not require the engine to be shut down.
pp) requires an oil change.
23. A smoke mask is a :
qq) mask with flow on request and covers the whole face.
rr) continuous flow mask and covers the whole face.
ss) mask with flow on request and covers only the nose and the mouth.
tt) continuous flow mask and covers only the nose and the mouth.
24. A class A fire is a fire of:
uu) solid material, generally of organic nature
vv) liquid or liquefiable solid
ww) electrical origin
xx) metal or gas or chemical (special fires)
25. Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
a) the airline complies with the Technical Instructions
b) national aviation administration permission has been granted
c) government permission has been granted
d) no passenger is carried on the same flight
26. Dangerous goods annex - ???
27. If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a
28. descent the instrument will:
a) over-read
b) read zero
c) continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage
d) under-read
29. Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum
30. operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent
31. from a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides
32. to use the maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited :
a) initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level
b) initially by theVMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level
c) by the MMO
d) by the VMO in still air
33. At a constant Mach number, the calibrated air speed (CAS) :
a) decreases when the altitude increases
b) increases when the altitude increases
c) remains unchanged when the outside temperature increases
d) remains unchanged when the outside temperature decreases
34. An Air Data Computer (ADC) :
a) Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo motors in
instruments
b) Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in the event that the static source
is blocked
c) Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the ground in order to provide correct
altitude and speed information
d) Measures position error in the static system and transmits this information to ATC to
provide correct altitude reporting
35. An ""intruding traffic advisory"" is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2
(Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by displaying :
a) a yellow full circle.
b) a blue or white empty lozenge.
c) a blue or white full lozenge.
d) a red full square.
36. If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear retracted) in proximity to terrain
and its GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) get activated, because it is
detecting that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of descent, the system provides
the following aural warning signals :
a) ""SINK RATE, SINK RATE"" followed by ""WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP"" (twice)
b) ""DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK""
c) ""TERRAIN, TERRAIN"" followed by ""WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP"" (twice)
d) ""TOO LOW, TERRAIN"" (twice) followed by ""TOO LOW GEAR"" (twice)
OR
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the following sound
signal or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around :
e) DON'T SINK repetitive only
f) WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP repetitive only
g) DON'T SINK always followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP
h) DON'T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if the sink rate overshoots a second
level
37. Regarding Electronic Instrument System (EFIS) :1- the Navigation Display (ND)
displays Flight Director Bars.2- the altimeter setting is displayed on the PFD
(Primary Flight Display).3- the PFD is the main flying instrument.4- the FMA (Flight
Mode Annunciator) is part of the ND.The combination regrouping all the correct
statements is :
a) 2, 3.
b) 3, 4.
c) 1, 4.
d) 1, 2.
38. The airplane outside air temperature ""probe"" measures the :
a) ""total"" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the
static temperature.
b) ""static"" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the total
temperature.
c) ""total"" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the static
temperature.
d) ""static"" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the total
temperature.
39. The Mach number:
a) is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.
b) is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound at sea level.
c) is the ratio between the IAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.
d) increases at a given TAS, when the temperature rises.
40. When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle
clearance / climb performance:
a) decreases / remains constant.
b) increases / increases.
c) remains constant / remains constant.
d) decreases / decreases.
41. The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered
a) when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms
b) in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kt
c) during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleys
d) near valleys and at the windward side of mountains.
42. What are the meteorological prerequisites, at low level, for thunderstorms formed
by lifting processes, over land?
a) High temperatures, high humidity.
b) High air pressure (> 1013 hPa), high temperatures.
c) Low temperatures, low humidity.
d) Subsidence, inversion.
43. Which of the following statements describes a microburst ?
a) A high speed downburst of air with a generally lower temperature than its
Surroundings
b) A high speed downdraft of air with a higher temperature than its surroundings
c) An extremely strong wind gust associated with a tropical revolving storm
d) A small low pressure system where the wind circulates at high speed
44. Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur
in a CB?
a) Between -2°C and -15°C
b) Between -20°C and -30°C
c) Close to the freezing level
d) Between -30°C and -40°C
45. At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C, according to the tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely
temperature at FL 350 ?
a) -54°C.
b) -50°C.
c) -56,5°C.
d) -58°C.
Join Date: Jan 2011
Location: Somewhere in Infinity
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@VT delta it was on Mass and Balance, find Rate of descent and to find GS..
wait for some time as i soon as i remember and compile the other questions, i ll post it..
And yes thanks to this forum and thread that i cleared the writtens
Will need help in CASS though..
wait for some time as i soon as i remember and compile the other questions, i ll post it..
And yes thanks to this forum and thread that i cleared the writtens
Will need help in CASS though..
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Hello! Anyone knows anyone who can help me out with CASS conducted by CAE! I need to take some coaching as I havnt sat in a cockpit since 4 years!! Help needed Guys
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CASS
Guys, any speculations on when can CAE conduct the CASS for the candidates who cleared the Written Exam Aug 2014? I hope the process is quick taking into consideration that there is no backlog of people waiting at indigo, contrary to what happened when KF debacle happened....
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Indigo screening Questions
Hi fly2infinity
Thank you for the Indigo screening question.
Can you send me the answers and some more information regarding the Indigo Captain screening and the company? How about the salary?
Email: [email protected]
Rgds.
Thank you for the Indigo screening question.
Can you send me the answers and some more information regarding the Indigo Captain screening and the company? How about the salary?
Email: [email protected]
Rgds.
Join Date: Jan 2011
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@ Rustom there is a Indigo Question bank posted on Ghost aviators Librabry on FB or else Volaire or Kieth Williams question Bank.. there are around 5000 Questions
Study Oxford if you have time.. its the Bible!!
Study Oxford if you have time.. its the Bible!!
Join Date: Aug 2014
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Indigo CASS
Hi ,even im waiting for the CASS mail . I just wanted to know how many days of buffer did the candidates have between receiving the mail & the date of CASS.
Thank you .
Thank you .