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mkqq
15th Jun 2017, 11:30
Hello all,

I know this has probably been discussed millions of times, but I really want to see if anyone has any real life experience or any insider info.

Most if not all the airlines only advertise that they need a Class 1 Medical, with or without vision correction.

However, do they have an unspoken preference for people without glasses or people without very strong prescriptions?

In other words, would I be disadvantaged if I wear glass (-6.00 left, -2.00 right)?

Would be great if anyone can share some real experience.

Many thanks

Millasaurus
15th Jun 2017, 11:41
Not quite as strong as you require, but I am about -4.00 in both eyes and hold a Class 1.

There are guidelines on the CAA website about exactly what is allowed, but they also have this handy spreadsheet which will tell you if you are within limits or not: https://www.caa.co.uk/WorkArea/DownloadAsset.aspx?id=4294973557

mkqq
15th Jun 2017, 11:58
According to the spreadsheet -6.0 is over the limit for an initial Class 1 Medical.

I did some research on this and different countries have different regulations. For UK -6.0 is borderline unacceptable, but for ICAO standards including countries such as Australia, USA, some Asian and Middle Eastern countries it is acceptable as long as your vision is correctable to 20/20.

Millasaurus
15th Jun 2017, 12:07
According to the spreadsheet -6.0 is over the limit for an initial Class 1 Medical.

I did some research on this and different countries have different regulations. For UK -6.0 is borderline unacceptable, but for ICAO standards including countries such as Australia, USA, some Asian and Middle Eastern countries it is acceptable as long as your vision is correctable to 20/20.

As far as I know, the CAA in the UK see it case by case, so you may still be accepted for Class 1. The only way to find out would be to go and get assessed I suppose.