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CREW_INOP
20th Apr 2002, 17:02
A rumour has recently trickled to me down the slimey grape vine that BA paypoint 1 AND 2 FO's will get no Xmas "bonus" this payday.

I heard someone suggest that this is due in part to the mistaken payment made last year to pp 1's. This is despite the fact that I know many pp2 FO's who DID NOT recieve ANY bonus last year, and also that BA VOLUNTEERED not to recover the monies mistakenly paid.

Does anyone know if there is any substance in this rumour?

If so, when did our beloved employer plan to notify us of this?

Is it actually legal to discriminate in this way? i.e. what guidelines do BA follow when paying this money? and where can I access them?

What would my union have to say about it?

I was under the impression that the money is paid to those who have worked for the full calender year in which the bonus is paid.

Anyone?

HomerJSimpson
23rd Apr 2002, 12:16
Only applies to Gatwick based pilots. Apparently it all dates back to 94/96 pay deal when BA would not cough up for PP1 and 2 pilots at Gatwick. BALPA agree that 99 pay deal was for ALL BA pilots to receive holiday pay. BA disagree and are refusing to pay PP1 and 2 at Gatwick. Stinks doesn't it!!!!! Write to BALPA and make your views known otherwise nothing will happen.

CREW_INOP
24th Apr 2002, 18:19
Surprise surprise.

I believe this to be a breach of European Law. As I understand it EU legislation affirms that two people doing the same job for the same company must recieve equal salary and benefits. If LHR PP2 FO's recieve this then so must those at LGW

A civil service union is currently acting on behalf of many of it's members who are being discriminated against due to length of service.

As this law was explained to me, the entire BA system of pay scales and various forms thereof may actually be illegal. The logic is that a 737 CPT after 5 years service does "work of equal value" to that of a 737 CPT of 10 years service, but does not recieve equal remuneration. If the argument against is that the latter has 5 years more experience and is of more value, then this means that DEP's should join the company at a payscale appropriate to their experience. Can any legal minded people clarify?