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Keith.Williams.
7th Sep 2001, 22:00
Following an initial failure of any JAR examination too many students seem to rush to try again without adequate preparation.

During my time as the POF instructor at PPSC I observed a good many students (often, but not always from other schools) attempting to improve their knowledge of a small number of subjects, by taking the 2 week consolidation course. Sadly in too many cases, this attempt to remedy their problems by taking a course designed for the average student, proved to be unsuccessful. This problem was compounded by the fact that the timing of the 2 week courses was such that any decision to cancel resits would have resulted in loss of exam fees.

I advise all students taking resits to seek a training provider that is able to meet their individual requirements. Under no circumstance should a fourth attempt be made unless you are absolutely (200%?) sure, that you are fully prepared.

This item has been edited to avoid it being interpreted as illicit advertising.

[email protected]

[ 09 September 2001: Message edited by: Keith Williams. ]

[ 09 September 2001: Message edited by: Keith Williams. ]

[ 09 September 2001: Message edited by: Keith Williams. ]

Keith.Williams.
9th Sep 2001, 18:14
The numbers requesting the diagnostic exercie are such that to send it out by individual e-mails would be very time consuming. I have therefore posted it below. I'm afraid the process of pasting it into the pprune system has messed up the format a little but it appears (on my monitor at least)to be still readable.

To obtain an assessment of your current knowledge please produce a list of question numbers and your selected options. I will respond to all readers individually by private e-mail. My e-mail address is [email protected]

BASIC 1.
Newton’s second laws states that………?
a. F = MA.
b. F = M/A.
c. A = MF.
d. M = AF.

BASIC 2.
The direction of static air pressure is …..?
a. Parallel to dynamic pressure.
b. Normal to dynamic pressure.
c. In all directions.
d. In no directions.

BASIC 3.
Bernoulli’s theorem states that……?
a. Air is incompressible.
b. Total pressure is constant.
c. Air has viscosity.
d. Air does not expand.

CLIMB 1.
What speed is required to achieve maximum endurance in a piston engine powered and jet engine powered aircraft respectively?
a. VMD VMP.
b. VMP VMD
c. VMO VMP
d. VMP VMO

CLIMB 2.
Select the appropriate words to complete the following statement.
Fuel flow in a piston engine aircraft is proportional to .......... whilst that in a jet powered aircraft is proportional to ......... Thrust output of a jet engine .................. with increasing airspeed whilst that of a piston engine ................
1. Is approximately constant
2. Thrust
3. Reduces rapidly
4. Power
5. RPM

a. 5 2 1 3
b. 4 2 3 1
c. 4 2 1 3
d. 2 4 3 1

CLIMB 3.
Select the correct words to complete the following statement.
To achieve the maximum possible glide range it is necessary to fly at ........... This is achieved by flying the aircraft in a ....................condition and at .........
a. BEST L :D RATIO 200 FLAPS VMP
b. BEST L2 :D RATIO FLAPS UP VMD
c. BEST L :D RATIO FLAPS UP VMD
d. BEST L2 :D RATIO FLAPS UP VMP

CLIMB 4.
What speed is required to achieve maximum angle of climb in a jet aircraft and a piston aircraft respectively and for what purpose might this be required?
a. VMD Minimum safe speed Obstacle clearance after take-off.
b. VMP Minimum safe speed Obstacle clearance after take-off.
c. Minimum safe speed VMD Gain height rapidly.
d. VMD Minimum safe speed Gain height rapidly.

CLIMB 6.
What happens to the range between minimum and maximum flight speeds for a subsonic aircraft as altitude increases?
a. It increases.
b. It decreases.
c. It remains constant.
d. It decreases then increases.

CLIMB 8.
When flying at VMD an aircraft has a CL of 0.45 and a CD of 0.0225. If its engines fail when flying at 36000 feet what will be its maximum glide range?
a. 100 nm.
b. 200 nm.
c. 120 nm.
d. 175 nm.

CLIMB 19.
How will a headwind and a tailwind respectively affect best range glide speed?
a. Decrease Increase
b. Decrease Decrease
c. Increase Decrease
d. Increase Increase

ENV 1.
If VA at 60000 Kg is 250 Kts what will it be at 70000 Kg?
a. 250 Kts.
b. 260 Kts.
c. 270 Kts.
d. 280 Kts.

ENV 2.
If flaps up VA at 60000 Kg is 250 Kts what will it be at 70000 Kg with flaps down?
a. 230 Kts.
b. 240 Kts.
c. 250 Kts.
d. 260 Kts.

ENV 3.
If weight is decreased by 25% by what % will VA decrease?
a. 11%.
b. 12%.
c. 13%.
d. 14%.

ENV 4.
The positive limit load factor of a JAR certificated passenger aircraft is ………flaps up and …….flaps down?
a. 2.0, 1.5.
b. 2.5, 2.0.
c. 2.0, 2.5.
d. 2.5, 2.5.

ENV 5.
At VA?
a. The aircraft will suffer permanent damage.
b. The aircraft cannot be damaged by control inputs.
c. Aircraft cannot be stalled before exceeding limiting load factor.
d. Manoeuvring is not possible.

ENV 6.
If load factor is increased beyond…… at maximum operating altitude it will cause………..?
a. 1g, mach tuck under.
b. 1.3g, buffeting.
c. 1.5g, clear air turbulence.
d. 2.5g, overstressing of the structure.

ENV 8.
Which of the following would increase VA for a given aircraft structure?
a. Increased aspect ratio.
b. Increased camber.
c. Increased wing area.
d. Increased sweep back.

ENV 9.
Which of the following would improve ride quality in turbulence?
a. Increased aspect ratio.
b. Increased camber.
c. Increased wing area.
d. Increased sweep back.

ENV 12.
Aircraft manoeuvrability…….. at high altitude because………..?
a. Increases, Stability decreases.
b. Increases, TAS increases.
c. Decreases, Buffet margins converge.
d. Decrease, Buffet margins diverge.

CON1.
What control inputs are required to maintain airspeed and altitude when turning in a jet aircraft?
a. Increase thrust and angle of attack.
b. Increase turn radius and decrease thrust.
c. Increase pitching angle.
d. Increase bank angle.

CON 2.
Torsional aileron flutter involves?
a. C of G aft of hinge line and cyclic twisting of wings.
b. C of G aft of C of P and cyclic twisting of wings.
c. C of P fwd of torsional axis and cyclic twisting of wings.
d. None of the above.

CON 3.
Flexural aileron flutter involves?
a. C of G aft of the hinge line and cyclic bending of wings.
b. C of G aft of C of P and cyclic twisting of wings.
c. C of p fwd of torsional axis and cyclic twisting of wings.
d. None of the above.

CON 4.
Swept back wings are …….. to divergence?
a. More prone.
b. Less prone.
c. Never prone.
d. None of the above.

CON 5.
Divergence is caused by?
a. Weak wings, high speeds and C of P forward of torsional axis.
b. Strong wings, low speeds, and C of G aft of torsional axis.
c. Weak wings, high speed and C of G aft of torsional axis.
d. Swept wings, high speed and C of G aft of C of P.

CON 6.
Why might trim tabs be employed in power assisted flying controls?
a. To enable control to be maintained following hydraulic failure.
b. To reduce control forces to zero.
c. To prevent overstressing of hydraulic actuators.
d. To provide mach trim.

CON 9.
How is control mass balance achieved?
a. By fitting weight aft of the hinge.
b. By fitting weights onto the leading edge.
c. By fitting weights into the tip cap.
d. By fitting a horn balance.

FLAPS 1.
What is the effect of deploying trailing edge flaps?
a. Increases CL and VS
b. Decreases CL and VS
c. Increases CL and decreases VS
d. Decreases CL and increases VS

FLAPS 2.
What is the effect of deploying leading edge slats?
a. Energising boundary layer and increasing VS
b. De-energising boundary layer and decreasing VS
c. Energising boundary layer and decreasing VS
d. De-energising boundary layer and increasing VS

FLAPS 3.
What is the effect on wing pitching moment, of deploying trailing edge flaps prior to landing?
a. Increased nose down pitching moment.
b. Decreased nose down pitching moment.
c. Nose up pitching moment replaced by nose down pitching moment.
d. Increased nose up pitching moment.

FLAPS 4.
What effect does deployment of trailing edge flaps have on stalling angle of attack?
a. No change.
b. Increased stalling angle.
c. Decreased stalling angle.
d. Increased or decreased stalling angle depending on wing sweep.

FLAPS 6.
What configuration of krueger flaps and slats would produce the best post-stall handling characteristics in a swept wing aircraft?
a. Slats inboard and Krueger flaps outboard.
b. Full span slats.
c. Full span Krueger flaps.
d. Kruger flaps inboard and slats outboard.

HSF 2.
What happens to the location of the centre of pressure as an aerofoil accelerates to M CRIT?
a. It moves backwards as pitch is reduced to maintain constant lift then moves forward as the first shock wave forms on the upper surface of the wing.
b. It moves towards the mid chord position due to the effects of the upper surface shock wave.
c. It moves slowly backwards as pitch angle is reduced to maintain a constant lift force with increasing airspeed, then forwards as the first shock waves form.
d. It remains stationary due to the balancing effects of changing pitch angle and shock wave formation.

HSF 17.
At what speed do the shock waves produced by a supersonic aircraft appear to move ever the ground?
a. Local speed of sound.
b. Speed of sound local to the altitude at which the aircraft is flying.
c. Speed at which the aircraft moves over the ground.
d. TAS of the aircraft.

HSF 19.
What is the purpose of vortex generators in transonic flight?
a. To energies boundary layer, to prevent it spreading outward on swept wing aircraft.
b. To prevent the formation of shock waves on the upper surface of the wing.
c. To reduce the effects of shock induced boundary layer separation.
d. To slow down the boundary layer, to delay the formation of shock waves.

HSF 30.
How does the shock wave angle vary with mach number?
a. Increases.
b. Decreases.
c. Remains constant.
d. Increases then decreases.

HSF 31.
Lift decreases when shock waves form on a wing because?
a. The bow wave reduces free stream velocity.
b. Trailing edge shock waves reduce velocity over the upper surfaces.
c. The boundary layer separates behind the shock wave.
d. The boundary layer separates ahead of the shock wave.

HSF 33.
What is the speed of the airflow immediately downstream of a normal shockwave?
a. Supersonic.
b. Subsonic.
c. Lower supersonic.
d. Transonic.

LD 1.
Which of the following statements is most accurate?
a. DI is proportional to 1 / (EAS)2
b. DI is proportional to 1 / (IAS)2
c. DI is proportional to 1 / (RAS)2
d. DI is proportional to 1 / (TAS)2

LD 2.
Which of the following statements is most accurate?
a. DI is proportional to L.
b. DI is proportional to L/V.
c. DI is proportional to 1/L.
d. DI is proportional to V/L.

LD 3.
If a 50000 lbf aircraft requires 25000 lbf of thrust maintain unaccelerated straight and level flight at 250 Kts what is its L :D ratio?
a. 1:2
b. 2:1
c. 10:1
d. 20:1

LD 4.
What effect does increasing load factor have on power required at any given aircraft weight and TAS?
a. No effect.
b. Increases in direct proportion to load factor.
c. Decreases in direct proportion to load factor.
d. Power required is inversely proportional to load factor.

POW1.
If TAS is increased from 300 Kts to 400 Kts with no change in altitude, configuration, or weight, by what percentage will power required change?
a. Decrease by 135%.
b. Decrease by 35%.
c. Increase by 135%.
d. Increase by 235%.

POW2.
What is the relationship between power required and TAS, as an aircraft accelerates above VMD?
a. Power required increases in direct proportion to TAS.
b. Power required increases in inverse proportion to TAS.
c. Power required increases in proportion to (TAS)3.
d. Power required increases in proportion to (TAS)2.

POW3.
At what % of its stalling speed must a jet aircraft fly to achieve maximum endurance for a given fuel load?
a. 122%.
b. 132%.
c. 142%.
d. 152%.

POW4.
For a piston aircraft at constant weight, angle of attack, and configuration, what will be the effect of increasing altitude?
a. Increased power and TAS will be required.
b. Increased power will be required but at the same TAS.
c. Lower power will be required at the same TAS.
d. The same power will be required but at an increased TAS.

POW5.
For a piston aircraft at a constant altitude, angle of attack, and configuration, what will be the effect of increasing weight?
a. More power will be required but at the same TAS.
b. More power will be required but at a higher TAS.
c. The same power will be required but at a higher TAS.
d. More power will be required but at a lower TAS.

PROPS 1.
What is the most common reason for increasing the number of blades on a propeller?
a. Increase aerodynamic efficiency.
b. Reduce propeller noise.
c. Increase power absorption capability.
d. Increase the effectiveness of the constant speed unit.

PROPS 2.
Which of the following will increase the gyroscopic precession effect of a propeller?
a. Increased angle of attack.
b. Decreased TAS.
c. Pitch and roll.
d. Increased RPM.

PROPS 3.
A constant speed propeller aircraft is descending with the throttle closed and RPM lever set at 2000 RPM. What would be the effect of retarding the propeller lever?
a. Rate of descent would remain constant and RPM would increase.
b. Rate of descent would remain constant and RPM would decrease.
c. Rate of descent and RPM would increase.
d. Rate of descent and RPM would decrease.

PROPS 4.
What effect does the torque reaction of a single right handed tractor propeller have during the take-off roll?
a. Weight on the right wheel increases, that on the left decreases.
b. Weight on the right wheel decreases, that on the left increases.
c. Weight on the right and left wheels decreases.
d. Weight on the right and left wheels increases.

PROPS 5.
What would be the result of propeller slipstream effect when taking-off using a single right handed tractor propeller?
a. Pitch up.
b. Pitch down
c. Yaw to the right.
d. Yaw to the left.

PROPS 6.
Which of the following statements about propellers is true?
a. Angle of attack is the angle between the chord line of the blade and the plane of rotation.
b. Critical tip speed is the RPM at which there is a risk of some part of the blade stalling.
c. Geometric pitch is the distance that a propeller would move forward in one turn if there were no slip.
d. Blade angle is the angle between the chord line of the blade and the shaft axis.

PROPS 7.
Which of the following conditions will occur when a propeller is feathered?
a. The highest windmilling speed.
b. The maximum D:L ratio.
c. Minimum aerodynamic drag on the propeller.
d. Lowest blade angle.

PROPS 8.
Which of the following statements about propellers is true?
a. Angle of attack is the angle between the chord line of the blade and the relative airflow.
b. Critical tip speed is the RPM at which there is a risk of some part of the blade stalling.
c. Effective pitch is the distance that a propeller would move forward in one turn if there were no slip.
d. Blade angle is the angle between the chord line of the blade and the shaft axis.

PROPS 10.
What is propeller blade angle?
a. The angle between the chord line of the blades and the axis of the propeller shaft.
b. The angle between the chord line of the blades and the plane of rotation of the propeller.
c. The angle between the chord line of the blades and the total reaction.
d. The angle between the chord line of the blades and the free stream airflow.

STAB 1.
What is short period mode?
a. Pilot induced oscillation.
b. Oscillation about the lateral axis.
c. Oscillation about the longitudinal axis.
d. Oscillation about the normal axis.

STAB 2.
What is phugoid motion?
a. Short period longitudinal oscillations.
b. Long period longitudinal oscillations.
c. Long period lateral oscillations.
d. Long period yawing oscillations.

STAB 3.
Where is the aft C of G limit of an aircraft?
a. Behind the neutral point.
b. Ahead of the neutral point.
c. On the neutral point.
d. On the manoeuvre point.

STAB 4.
At what position on an aircraft must the C of G be to make it neutrally longitudinally stable during pull up manoeuvres?
a. The neutral point.
b. The transition point.
c. The aerodynamic centre.
d. The manoeuvre point.

STALL 1.
What % of CL Max would a wing produce when flying at 1.3 VS?
a. 77%
b. 59%
c. 120%
d. 98%

STALL 2.
What is the relationship in straight and level flight between the CL at any given speed and CL Max?
a. CL = 100%CL Max
b. CL = CL Max (1 / (V / VS)) x 100%
c. CL = CL Max (VS2 / V2) x 100%
d. CL = CL Max (V / VS) x 100%

STALL 3.
If the C of G is moved forward what will be the effect on stalling speed?
a. No effect
b. Increase
c. Decrease
d. Increase or decrease depending on aircraft weight

STALL 4.
If the C of G of an aircraft is moved forward what will be the effect on longitudinal, directional and lateral stability?
a. No effect on longitudinal, increase lateral and directional.
b. Increase longitudinal and lateral, no effect on directional.
c. Decrease lateral, increase directional and longitudinal.
d. Increase longitudinal and directional, no effect on lateral.

CLIMB 97.
If weight is 15000 lbf, maximum thrust is 25000 lbf and drag is 5000 lbf, what will be the maximum climb angle?
a. 13.6o.
b. 23.6o.
c. 33.6o.
d. 90o.

FORMS 1.
Two aircraft have the same wing shape and area if one has straight wings and the other swept wings how will the aspect ratios of the two aircraft compare?
a. No change.
b. Aspect ratio will increase as wings sweepback angle increases.
c. Aspect ratio will decrease as wing sweepback angle increases.
d. Depends on the C of G position.

FORMS 2.
Which wing plan forms are most susceptible to tip stall?
a. High aspect ratio, elliptical, Low taper ratio, straight.
b. High aspect ratio, pointed, high taper ratio, swept.
c. Low aspect ratio, elliptical, low taper ratio, straight.
d. Low aspect ratio, pointed, low taper ratio, swept.

FORMS 3.
Which of the following statements are true of low aspect ratio rectangular wings?
a. They produce low induced drag and high profile drag.
b. They produce low profile drag and high induced drag.
c. They are difficult to construct and roots stall before their tips.
d. They are easy to construct and their tips stall before their roots.

FORMS 4.
In what direction is the airflow deflected as it passes over the tips of lift generating pointed wings.
a. Downwards.
b. Forwards.
c. Upwards.
d. Aft.

scroggs
10th Sep 2001, 01:22
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