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ross_M
26th Jun 2011, 18:05
I came across this snippet in an accident report (http://news.aviation-safety.net/2011/06/26/report-b737-800-rejected-takeoff-after-v1/)

The Boeing 737-800 operated by Ryanair was taking off from runway 041 on the 4th of June 2010 at Eindhoven Airport, the Netherlands.

Which direction would a "041" runway be in? Adding the zero doesn't seem to make sense in degrees.

Is this just a typo? (Using Wikipedia I suspect a Runway 4/22 )

gusting_45
27th Jun 2011, 01:20
well it's not possible to have runway 41 so it would seem like the answer was pretty self-evident.

Sobelena
27th Jun 2011, 04:41
It is runway 04. However, the 041 comes from the actual magnetic heading of the runway (i.e. 041-221).

gobfa
27th Jun 2011, 09:04
Looking at the report, the figure 1 after 04 is in fact a figure 1 of a smaller case which refers you to the bottom of the page, in this case

1 Runway 04, is the designation of a runway with a heading of approximately 40 degrees magnetic

ross_M
27th Jun 2011, 10:01
Darn! That was stupid of me. :ugh::ugh: Makes sense now.

Just to clarify though; accurate magnetic headings such as 041 would never be used as runway names, correct?

HEATHROW DIRECTOR
27th Jun 2011, 10:13
Correct. First two numbers of the three-figure heading are used.

rennaps
28th Jun 2011, 12:51
If they didn't round the magnetic bearing to the nearest 10 degrees they would be changing the name of the runway every year as the magnetic variation changed. This would involve quite an expense as it would involve lots of things changing (i.e. physically painting the name on the runway etc..).