Originally Posted by
OJ 72
In addition, the Belfast Agreement states that consent for a united Ireland would need to be given “concurrently” in the north and south. So, axiomatic to this would be that any IndyRef 2 should need the consent of the rest of the UK for Scottish cessation!!
I don't have a dog in the fight on this, but while there are merits to the parallels you draw, this is flawed logic. The reason Belfast specifies concurrent north/south referenda is because it is assumed that leaving the UK would cause NI to reunite with the south. Therefore the south should have a say in allowing them to join. In the Scottish IndyRef you're not talking Scotland joining any other nation, therefore no southern vote required.