Originally Posted by
ayroplain
Just being devil's advocate here in relation to a court assuming authority to tell a European company how to run its business. If, for example, Debenhams, who are in the process of closing lots of stores, have stores in Holland they wish to close will they be in court to be told:
1. If a company has personnel in the Netherlands, dutch labor law will always be applicable to those employees.
2. Debenhams must keep the stores open/is forbidden to close down in Eindhoven
3. Debenhams must keep the employees employed, and must continue to pay their salaries. If Debenhams does not pay up at the end of each month, they have to pay €xxxxx euro’s per staff member
1. Yes
2 & 3. Yes, if they're closing down business according to UK and not NL law. If, however, they're closing shop in accordance with NL law, obviously they will not be told to remain open or keep paying salaries beyond the legal redundancy period as stipulated by NL law.
What Ryanair are trying, again, is to pretend IE labour law can be used throughout the EU. That's not the case, and Ryanair have lost every single court case - and there's been a few of them - where this topic has been contended. Every single one. Yet they keep trying, and it's very pleasing to once more see a court telling them to fark orf and play by the local rules.