Originally Posted by
WingNut60
The following is not meant to exonerate anyone, and undoubtedly the aircraft was deliberately targeted.
But does anyone really think or assert that the aircraft was deliberately targeted while knowing it to be a non-Ukrainian, non-combatant over-flight?
Or, put more simply, is there anything to support this being anything other than a major f.....k up?
Something along the lines of the USS Vincennes incident.
I did see an article saying that an Aeroflot flight was on a crossing north/south track at the time Mh17 was hit. The theory goes that Putain was try to shoot down that one in order to justify full scale invasion of Ukraine. No proof or course, but plausible with that nutter.